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July 27

Rape Conviction Question

If a person who is accused of rape wins in criminal court but loses in civil court, are this person's employers and potential employers going to be capable of finding out about this person's rape conviction in civil court? Futurist110 (talk) 02:51, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

There probably won't be anything to prevent their finding out about it, but there's no civil version of the sex offender registry if that's what you have in mind. —Tamfang (talk) 04:30, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Depending on the particular jurisdiction, there is usually an option in a civil court case to apply for an order to prevent publication of the outcome. It would be up to the court to decide about that. With no such order the press and other media would be free to publicise the result and name the person involved. There would be no automatic notification process, nor would a civil court judgement appear if there were any checks on criminal records. Wymspen (talk) 09:05, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Is a person in civil court found guilty of rape? A conviction is for a crime, and that is handled in criminal court. What is handled in civil court is not at the same threshold of law and evidence and is more for monetary purposes. Sir Joseph ^(talk) 14:26, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Several things spring to mind here:

A civil finding of liability is not a criminal conviction. As others have said, it will not show up on a criminal record check, nor will the individual be on the sex offenders register.
In the UK, I could imagine that if the Disclosure and Barring Service got wind of the court's finding, they may be entitled to use the information to put in place the relevant measures to refuse the individual clearance to work with children or vulnerable adults. However, only organizations who employ people to work with these groups would have access to such decisions.
If the case was reported in the media, there's every chance an employer or potential employer could find the information, whether by reading the media, or a simple google search of the person's name bringing up a link to the media article. What Whympsn says about the power of courts to make non-publication orders is true. However the only times I could imagine this being done was at the request of the plaintiff (the rape victim) in a case where naming the defendant would enable identification of the victim (such as an incest case). I could possibly also imagine a court suppressing publication if the defendant was a minor at the time of the rape. But in general, the media would otherwise be free to report the court's finding, with the potential result of an employer or potential employer stumbling on this information.
Note that any court judgement that a person owes another person money will show up in a Credit report, meaning if the person applies for credit (a mortgage, loan, or credit card, for example) the institution he is applying to will be able to see this information, which would definitely include the sum of damages awarded. However, I don't know if this includes why the person was ordered to pay ("rape"), or if it would simply be a record that the person was ordered by court X on date Y to pay a debt in the sum of $x (whatever sum the victim-plaintiff was awarded by the court). So yes, being found civilly liable for rape could cause problems in getting any sort of credit or loan, particularly if the sum of damages awarded was large, but potentially even if it was small. As far as the bank or other institution sees it, someone had to take this guy to court to force him to pay up, which obviously reflects badly on his credit-worthiness. (BTW this applies to any "debt judgement" by a court that the debtor owes the money, and the creditor has had to resort to legal action to force him to pay up - regardless if it's an unpaid bill for goods or services, or a damages award for rape or anything else).

Hope this ramble helps. Others feel free to correct any errors I have made. Eliyohub (talk) 15:05, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I felt free to correct your inconsistent indentation. —Tamfang (talk) 06:42, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Assuming that you are referring to practice in the United States, the court judgment will be a matter of public record, so employers will be able to learn about it. (As Sir Joseph notes, this would not be a conviction, but simply a finding of civil liability for the sexual assault, presumably resulting in monetary damages and perhaps a court order to stay away from the plaintiff.) Settlements, however, can be made confidential, although if the settlement were entered into after the court case was filed, employers would be able to tell that there was some kind of settlement. John M Baker (talk) 15:04, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

They would be able to learn about it if they went trawling through court records. However, whilst many employers routinely do criminal record checks, how many would in fact go searching for civil judgements? Credit rating agencies do routinely collect info about civil judgements, but would the average employer be likely to actually look for or stumble across what would otherwise presumably be rather obscure information? Eliyohub (talk) 15:10, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

It would depend how obscure it was. In the US in particular, it doesn't seem that rare that these sort of things show up as publicly accessible and indexed on search engines. And I'm fairly sure searching someone's name on the internet isn't exactly rare nowadays as part of the employment process. Note also that credit reports are commonly a part of the employment process in the US although I'm not sure how much info about civil judgements shows up in the info provided to putative employers [1] [2] [3]. This video is IMO particularly illustrative of credit reports and associated agencies (like background check agencies) in the US [4]. Nil Einne (talk) 15:33, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I have filled out plenty of job applications in the US, both with major corporations and the government. None have ever asked if I have had a civil judgment against me. I would suggest that if someone is aware of such a question, they post it. There are employers who ask to do credit checks. But that is not the same thing. μηδείς (talk) 01:55, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

True, but that doesn't answer the question as to whether the judgement will come up on your credit record. In the UK, it definitely can. See [5], [6], or [7]. Note that from what I can see, the credit record does not show why it was decided that you owe the money - simply how much you were ordered to pay, when the order was made, and whether the judgement has been "satisfied" (translation: you have in fact paid up the money you owed). Though the credit record does seem to note the court case serial number, so if an employer did want to delve deeper, they could look up details about the specific case (though this may vary in difficulty). Also, if the court orders you to pay and you do in fact pay promptly (within 30 days), it may not end up on the record. However, if the creditor / plaintiff is forced to take further action to enforce payment of the court order, it will show. From a credit record perspective, you have at this point defaulted on a debt. The fact that you may have been ordered to pay the victim / plaintiff millions you don't have is irrelevant. Not sure how things work in the US or other countries, though I wouldn't be surprised if they were similar. Eliyohub (talk) 06:54, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Nordic Royal Orders

Hi,

I'm currently trying to do a page on my great grandfather who was a politician and a Knight first class of "Order of the Dannebrog" and "Order of Vasa". However, I can't publish the article without finding any digital reference to this being the case. I've spent two hours trying to find a complete list of recipients of these titles online, but have so far been unsuccessful. Do you know if the two respective orders keep any online archives? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Runi Oregaard (talk • contribs) 12:46, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Wikipedia has articles about the Danish Order of the Dannebrog and Swedish Order of Vasa. I added a heading to the question. AllBestFaith (talk) 14:10, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Also note that sources do not have to be online they can be from printed sources as long as they are considered reliable. MilborneOne (talk) 19:35, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Being a recipient of those two awards may not be sufficient to satisfy the notability requirements. Clarityfiend (talk) 08:09, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

But the reason for being a recipient of those awards might be sufficient grounds for notability, if there was adequate press coverage. Roger (Dodger67) (talk) 09:42, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Traditional Chinese shoes

What's the name of these traditional Chinese shoes? They seem to be quite stereotypical appearing in various martial art films as well. Thanx.--93.174.25.12 (talk) 12:47, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

传统的鞋款

傳統鞋

休闲鞋

AllBestFaith (talk) 14:21, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Aren't they just spats? _Muffled ^Pocketed 17:41, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

They are not spats, they are shoes... --PalaceGuard008 (Talk) 18:25, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

In modern Chinese the traditional style is usually just called "cloth shoes", 布鞋, which are differentiated from "modern" shoes by the sole, which is stitched from many layers of cloth. The variety with a thicker upper, stuffed with cotton, for winter wear might be called "cotton shoes", 棉鞋. The type with a soft sole and so suitable for tai chi or martial arts might be marketed as "tai chi shoes" or "(martial arts) training shoes", but they are regarded as a sub-type of "cloth shoes". --PalaceGuard008 (Talk) 18:25, 27 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

July 28

What happened to homes owned by single loners who were conscripted into the military during WW2?

As I understand it, during World War 2 in the UK most able bodied men were conscripted into the military. It is reasonable to assume that some of those men owned their own homes, and of those who did own their own house some would have lived in it on their own without a family. Lets assume such a man who owned his own home but had no wife or children, no living relatives, and all his friends (if he had any) were also conscripted into the military at the same time he was. What happened to his house? What if he couldn't arrange for anyone to look after it for him? Who paid the bills? Who paid his mortgage? Did it just sit empty while he was at war so he had a home to come back to at the end, or did the bailiffs repossess it? Seems a bit mean to risk life and limb for your country only for the state to come take your house away. 119.18.234.62 (talk) 00:18, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Weren't the wages paid to servicemen comparable to those paid in civilian employment? There would be no outgoings, unlike today when you may have to pay double council tax if your home is left unoccupied. Out of his military salary the soldier would have had to pay nothing for food, accommodation, fuel etc. 81.134.89.140 (talk) 00:33, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

No: "A soldier in the Somerset Light Infantry recalled that when he was conscripted in 1939, his pay was two shillings (10 pence) per day, or 14 shillings per week (70 pence), but that his civilian job had paid him £6 (120 shillings per week)", [8] Alansplodge (talk) 12:02, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I can't speak for the UK, but the United States has the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act, which provides servicemen and their property with various protections against civil actions, including foreclosure and eviction, while in active service. A version of this act under a different name was passed during the American Civil War, and the act under this name was in effect during World War I. It was recreated at the start of World War II and has been in effect ever since. I can't find if the UK has a similar law. Someguy1221 (talk) 00:59, 28 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Some information about wartime rent control in History of rent control in England and Wales but I couldn't find anything else. Alansplodge (talk) 20:06, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

But... I have found some partly legible snippets on Google Books concerning the Possession of Mortgaged Land (Emergency Provisions) Act 1939 which seems to address this issue, but exactly how remains unclear to me. Alansplodge (talk) 20:22, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

July 29

Any US Presidents who were shot and survived?

There were some news articles about John Hinckley, who shot Ronald Reagan, being released from a mental hospital after all these years. This makes me wonder if there were any other US Presidents who were shot and didn't die from their wounds (lots of war veterans were presidents, so maybe it happened on the battlefield?).--Captain Breakfast (talk) 03:50, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

See List of United States presidential assassination attempts and plots#Assassination attempts.

John Flammang Schrank shot Theodore Roosevelt "once in the chest with a .38 caliber revolver. The 50-page text of his campaign speech folded over twice in Roosevelt's breast pocket and a metal glasses case slowed the bullet, saving his life. Schrank was immediately disarmed, captured and might have been lynched had Roosevelt not shouted for Schrank to remain unharmed. After discerning he was not mortally wounded, Roosevelt finished his speech with the bullet still lodged in his chest. Afterwards, he went to a nearby hospital, where the bullet was found between his ribs. Doctors decided it would be too risky to remove it, so the bullet remained in Roosevelt's body for the rest of his life. He spent two weeks recuperating before returning to the campaign trail. Despite his tenacity, Roosevelt ultimately lost his bid for reelection."

-- ToE 04:52, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Is it true that if he went right away he paradoxically would've died? Sagittarian Milky Way (talk) 08:43, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

How do you die paradoxically? ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 22:46, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Get shot by your grandson from the future, maybe? --71.110.8.102 (talk) 00:11, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Sure. But TR was not shot by his future grandson. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 01:42, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

At that point (1912) he was a former president. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 05:21, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Maybe you are just being smart, but I am not limiting the question to sitting presidents. Past/future presidents ok too (thus my battlefield comment earlier).--Captain Breakfast (talk) 09:24, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Andrew Jackson was shot and wounded in a duel.

I believe George Bush Sr. was wounded at least once during WWII. Roger (Dodger67) (talk) 10:51, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Ronald Reagan is pretty obvious. _Muffled ^Pocketed 10:54, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

You might want to look up the definition of the word "other" and re-read the OP's initial post. --Jayron 32 11:03, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

James Monroe had been shot and nearly died from a severed artery during the Revolutionary War. Rutherford B. Hayes was shot during the Civil War, injuring his arm pretty severely. --Jayron 32 11:10, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

You mean since the 1840 election. Note: this was reply to a comment that was later deleted. older ≠ wiser 13:08, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

It was deleted because it was posted by a banned user. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 22:49, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Some of the uncanny similarities between the deaths of Lincoln and Kennedy are listed at Lincoln-Kennedy coincidences urban legend. Here are some more:

	Lincoln	Kennedy
Republican convention held	Chicago '60	Chicago '60
Secretary's name		Lincoln
Secretary's warning	Do not go to theater	Do not go to Dallas
Concessionaire	Joseph "Peanuts John" Burroughs	Butch Burroughs
Assassin detained by	Luther B Baker	Marion L Baker

Also, prior to being shot, Lincoln was in Monroe, Maryland. Prior to being shot, Kennedy was in Marilyn Monroe... --Jayron 32 15:35, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Not all of those are real but there's more coincidences like year of entering Congress to balance it out Sagittarian Milky Way (talk) 18:58, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

The Monroe one is especially silly since Marilyn was already dead in 1963. Adam Bishop (talk) 17:09, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I think that was a joke, son. Made even more effective had he said it as "Monroe, Maryland" vs. "Monroe, Marilyn". ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 21:43, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Google Images have some entries claiming that John Alexander Kennedy was connected with Lincoln in some way. They were contemporaries, but that was about it. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 17:54, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Add to the list: Lincoln’s secretary was named Kennedy. Lincoln was shot in Ford's Theater; Kennedy was shot in a Lincoln Ford. Both were shot on a Friday, in the head, by a Southerner and succeeded by a Southerner named Johnson born 100 years later (as was the case in the births of Booth and Oswald). Booth ran from a theater and was caught in a warehouse; Oswald ran from a warehouse and was caught in a theater. Both were killed before they could be tried. But, just a coincidence ... DOR (HK) (talk) 14:57, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I think most of those are in the article. One exception is that Lincoln did not have a secretary named Kennedy. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 17:12, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Booth was born in 1838, Oswald in 1939. Marilyn Monroe died in 1962. 86.151.49.155 (talk) 20:43, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Looking for an essay

I had to read an excellent essay about how to write concisely in my English class in college. It's called "Gutter" (if I remember correctly). Now, I'm trying to find it to reference to a friend, but I can't seem to find it anywhere. Can anyone give me a link to it please? I can get access to almost all database through my university access. 216.26.103.55 (talk) 06:06, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

"Sir... CBE"

In the article Order of the British Empire it says that just GBEs and KBE/DBEs are entitled "Sir", not CBEs. I remember reading years ago Sir Peter Ustinov's funny description by what bureaucratic procedures he became a knight, and he is usually referred to as "Sir..." on the continent as well. Is there just one letter wrong and, thus, should it read KBE instead of CBE in the article Peter Ustinov ? Or is the article Order of the British Empire not precise in that point, and "Sir Peter, CBE" is correct? Thanks a lot in advance for your help 80.133.76.178 (talk) 11:13, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

In his article he's also listed as Knight Bachelor. Mikenorton (talk) 11:19, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

As a Knight Bachelor (1990) he gets to be called Sir, but doesn't get any letter after his name. His CBE dates from 1975. It's the same with Bruce Forsyth and Elton John. -- zzuuzz ^(talk) 11:46, 29 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

July 30

Political convention

What would have happened if one or both presidential candidates declined (for whatever reason) their respective parties' nomination? 74.15.116.62 (talk) 02:54, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

The party would have to choose someone else. This has been discussed fairly recently in the ref desks, possibly humanities, possibly elsewhere. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 03:39, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

link, anyone? I presume this would release those delegates "pledged" to the declining candidate from their pledges. The rules on whom they'd have to vote for instead vary from state to state, from what I remember? Not quite a perfectly identical question, but see Wikipedia:Reference_desk/Archives/Humanities/2016_March_23#In_the_Republican_presidential_primaries_of_2016.2C_what_happens_to_Marco_Rubio.27s_169_delegates.3F. I presume similar rules would apply if the "presumptive nominee" withdrew his or her nomination, wouldn't they? That answer only deals with the Republican party's rules - I don't know how things would work in the Democratic Party if something arose (e.g. a family crisis or a major health scare) which caused presumptive nominee Hillary Clinton to withdraw. Anyone able to enlighten me and the OP on this question?

Also, the question I linked to only deals with the process pre the actual vote. Would the same process apply now that Trump is no longer simply "presumptive" nominee, but has in fact been formally nominated? Or would the nominee's running mate automatically get to step into the nominee's shoes, just as if the nominee was actually president?

Don't let this distract people from the rest of my answer (please do offer facts or opinions on what I've written above), but out of curiousity, I looked up Betfair's "next president" market. Their clear presumption (or rather that of their punters) is that if by some remote chance, something happens to push out Hillary, than (surprise!) the only other serious candidate, Bernie Sanders, will get the gig as Democratic nominee. Joe Biden being the only other layable chance, but only around half as likely as Bernie to be chosen. On the Republican side, things seem far less clear, with ALL candidates barring Paul Ryan essentially being at unlayable odds (and Ryan is very close to that point too). So essentially, if before the election Trump dies, gets hit by a meteor, or withdraws due to some sort of personal or family crisis, the field is pretty open. The punters suggest Paul Ryan would be frontrunner by a nose, but any one of several potential candidates could emerge (or rather re-emerge). Eliyohub (talk) 13:35, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

The Servicemembers civil relief act and unintended consequences

I well understand the logic behind the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act, to allow soldiers to go fight for their country without having to worry about their house being foreclosed upon or being evicted by their landlord whilst they're gone. My question is, wouldn't such a law have unintended consequences?

Which bank would want to extend a mortgage to a serviceman who is liable to be called up on deployment, leaving the bank with an unpaid mortgage constantly growing, and a home they can't foreclose on to deal with it? Ditto with a landlord and a tenancy - who would rent an apartment to someone in the military, if the person is liable to get called up and stop paying the rent, but can't be evicted until their return? For that matter, wouldn't this apply to any creditor dealing with an application for any form credit from an enlisted servicemember (who is not currently on deployment, but is liable to be called up at any time)?

At least the bank extending the mortgage likely has some equity in the house, so it's not totally exposed. When the serviceman returns, if he can't pay up the arrears, the bank can if necessary foreclose and take their cut of the sale. The landlord, on the other hand, is totally exposed. If the serviceman tenant racks up a huge rent bill which he will not be able to afford to pay on return, the landlord may suffer a significant loss.

So my question is, does the servicemans civil relief act have the effect of making people reluctant to extend credit to servicemen? If yes, how is this problem practically dealt with? Can a landlord legally demand a disproportionate bond to cover the rent for the maximum time a serviceman is likely to be on deployment for?

And if the act does not in practice have this effect of making people reluctant to extend credit, why not? How do creditors protect themselves from being left with a mounting debt owed to them, and a debtor they can't sue until his return (at which point the debt may have exceeded the serviceman's assets)? Eliyohub (talk) 12:56, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

You are assuming the government won't pick up the tab. Is that really how it works ? If so, that falls into the "unfunded mandate" category, which always causes problems.

I also wonder how often unpaid rent or mortgages are really an issue. After all, servicemen and women are paid, and have virtually all their living expense covered while deployed, leaving all the money they would have spent on transportation, clothes, food, entertainment, etc., while home, to be applied towards rent and their mortgage. And they may have additional combat pay.

You might also wonder if renters might take advantage, not pay rent and then move out after their protection under the Act expires. I doubt if many do. After all, all the owed rent then becomes due, doesn't it ? Meaning they could then have their wages garnished to pay back rent, would have their credit rating damaged, would have an extremely negative reference from the landlord when they looked for a new place to live, etc. And if there's no limitation on interest and penalties that can accrue, the total amount would also be far higher than if they just paid the rent. The only way I can see a net gain for the soldier is if they are sure they won't survive. They could then send their pay to whomever they like, instead of to the landlord, and not have to worry about all the negative consequences they would otherwise face. StuRat (talk) 17:47, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I think you might be overstating the law when you say "without having to worry about their house being foreclosed upon" the act requires that any foreclosure on a service member on active duty be approved by a judge. The provision that relates to rent/leases applies to leases which were signed prior to the service member becoming active duty military or when they are transferred or deployed overseas for more then 3 months. If a SM stops paying their rent 'just because' the law isn't going to help them very much. In any case evictions can still occur, they simply need to be approved by a court first. Maybe your state is different but many states already require a judge to approve any eviction order. As for mortgages lenders have been found guilty of breaking the law US V. Capitol One and The settlement between 49 states, the feds and several banks provide some examples. A nice guide to the law is available, although tailored toward judges it provides a decent overview for the non lawyer as well. Link . Gradvmedusa (talk) 08:00, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

In Britain, no tenant/homeowner can be evicted without an order of a judge. During the war, servicemen's civilian jobs were legally protected so that they could return to them after demobilisation. Similar protection applies today to women who take advantage of legal provisions for maternity leave. 86.151.49.155 (talk) 20:29, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Paul Stahl (soldier)

Hello. Since the main author hasn't answered for quite a while by now, can anybody here tell what is correct?--Hubon (talk) 21:18, 30 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I can't see any conflicting iformation. ProgrammingGeek (Page! • Talk! • Contribs!) 07:32, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

The infobox was changed a couple of months ago, to match the lead section.[9] Whether the info is correct or not, would be another question. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 07:55, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

OMG! I haven't realized that yet because no one answered to my request. My mistake, I'm incredibly sorry for bothering.--Hubon (talk) 16:29, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Except we still don't have a source for it. All we have is agreement between the lead and the infobox. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 17:52, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Right. Though, to be honest, I simply trust in DocYako's knowledge here since he is the main author, whom I also addressed before on this issue.--Hubon (talk) 22:40, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

July 31

Restrictions on which passport a person with multiple citizenships can use

It's illegal for an American citizen to enter or exit the US using a foreign passport they might hold. I imagine other countries might have the same policy as well. Where can I find a list of such countries?

I wondering whether Turkey has such a law, in particular, due to this recent story[10]. Crudiv1 (talk) 02:27, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Well our Turkish nationality law#Dual citizenship does say "Dual nationals are not compelled to use a Turkish passport to enter and leave Turkey; it is permitted to travel with a valid foreign passport and the Turkish National ID card" so it seems to me there's less reason to wonder, although it is unsourced. Note that the article you linked to is unclear whether they just had their foreign passports cancelled or they were also forbidden to travel. If it's the later, the legalities of travelling on a foreign passport would seem to be a moot point since leaving Turkey while forbidden would surely already be illegal. (Whether they catch it or not will generally depend more on the efficiency of their data matching and not legalities.) Nil Einne (talk) 04:41, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

You can check the US Department of States travel information pages for a general overview on a country by country basis. For example the Brazil guide says "Special Entry/Exit Requirements for Dual Nationals: U.S. citizens who also have Brazilian nationality cannot be issued Brazilian visas and must obtain a Brazilian passport from the Brazilian Embassy or Consulate nearest to their place of residence to enter and depart Brazil. In addition to being subject to all Brazilian laws affecting U.S. citizens, dual nationals may also be subject to other laws that impose special obligations on Brazilian citizens."^[1] You can find the countries Here . 06:42, 31 July 2016 (UTC)Gradvmedusa (talk)

References

^ https://travel.state.gov/content/passports/en/country/brazil.html

A Cuban friend with double citizenship told me that, when she enters Cuba she must use her Cuban passport. --Error (talk) 00:45, 1 August 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Philippines v China in the South China Sea: PCA in the Hague instead of ITLOS in Hamburg

In June the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) in The Hague ruled China's actions illegal and claims invalid to the contentious South China Sea.

My current understanding is that according to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) allows for states to choose among three options for dispute settlement, among them the PCA in The Hague, The International Tribunal on the Law of the Sea in Hamburg (ITLOS), and the International Criminal Court (ICJ).

Now the Philippines v. China case took place in the PCA at The Hague, among news articles the terms the PCA and "The Tribunal" are used interchangeably. Now I've read some reasons why the Philippines would choose the PCA, if it did indeed choose it, namely because the PCA has dealt with such matters before and it predates the UN and ITLOS. I'm not sure those are the real reasons. Also according to some news articles ITLOS choose many of the Judges at the PCA case.

I'm wondering, considering the PCA is "a bureaucracy" not a court, does that mean that the PCA was merely a location for ITLOS to judge the case, or the PCA was taking the case independent of ITLOS?

I'm having trouble organizing whats really going on and why the case took place in the PCA rather than ITLOS, am I on the right track? What information or UNCLOS articles am I missing? I've done considerable research on the issue but a lot of points are made more confusing by research and conflicting testimony.

All in all my current understanding says that PCA was simply the host for an ITLOS trial, and thus it was just ITLOS but in The Hague, using the resources of the PCA to bolster the case. However I think I might be wrong about this. —Aiden 09:23, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

You may want to check the Permanent Court of Arbitration#Interstate arbitration based on UNCLOS article which was recently updated and seems to deal with the general concept. I presume and a check of one of the linked sources confirms [11] the tribunal was set up according to annex VII. The linked UNCLOS text says what this entails [12] (page 190 of the document, 184 of the PDF). The constitution of such a tribunal seems quite different from International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea. Nil Einne (talk) 18:14, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Reports refer to the International Court of Justice in The Hague [13], the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague [14] and the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea in The Hague [15].

China argues

the dispute predates UNCLOS
there is no agreement to take a dispute to arbitration
the tribunal only has jurisdiction to rule on maritime rights ancillary to an adjudication on "competing territorial claims" (see last link) which there are not
the construction of artificial islands creates maritime rights (they don't - Article 121 defines an island as a "naturally formed area of land"). — Preceding unsigned comment added by 86.151.49.155 (talk) 20:13, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Fed . US Treasury Securities

>> I should have pointed out earlier that there's no reason for a government with monetary sovereignty, like the U.S., to default.

Can you explain please how will actually Fed give money to Treasury (how many ways exist)? If this will be as during QE, when Fed bought Treasuries, then public debt will not reduce, but just will be refinanced on new 30-year period. And what is the reason of buying Treasuries by Fed? Surplus of Fed in any case comes back to budget. Or Fed will eliminate returning dollars?

72.19.61.71 (talk) 10:13, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Here's the QE version: Step 1: Congress authorizes the Treasury to issue a debt instrument (T-bill). Step 2: The Federal Reserve gives the Treasury money in exchange for the T-bill. Another version is payment of dividends from state-owned assets to the Treasury. DOR (HK) (talk) 14:33, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Olympic Games

In the Olympics, if you're a competitor in a sport that requires equipment, for instance badminton or archery, can you supply your own equipment, so long as it conforms with the IOC's requirements, or are you issued with Olympic approved equipment. In the latter scenario, I can see that it gives everybody parity, but that it also gives a disadvantage because you're using unfamiliar equipment? Thanks in advance --14:37, 31 July 2016 (UTC) — Preceding unsigned comment added by Mrandrewnohome (talk • contribs)

I'm fairly sure such things are largely up to the sport with little regulation at the IOC level. That said, most sports do expect the competitor to supply their own equipment e.g. [16] [17] [18] [19] [20] [21]. That's why you often get stories of people from desperately poor country and the like (no ref as all I found were mostly referring to training although I'm sure I've seen some before), people who suffer some sort of misfortune [22] [23] and Australians [24] needing to borrow equipment to compete, even if it doesn't always end well [25] (well possibly that wasn't the end). BTW, it's perhaps worth remembering even sports like running (shoes, clothes), and swimming (swimgear, goggles) have equipment (or whatever you want to call it) which can have sufficient performance difference to be relevant especially when you're talking about close competitions. P.S. I assume it's understood we're only talking about individual or team equipment. Equipment that are used by both competitors e.g. footballs, shuttlecocks, are normally provided by some official supplier for the entire sport that year. Nil Einne (talk) 17:35, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Origin of American English

When did American English accents begin to distinguish themselves from British pronunciation?Larry Melvin (talk) 20:16, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Define "British". ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 21:41, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Indeed. Do you mean English, Scottish English, Welsh English or Hiberno English? If English, do you mean Cockney, Geordie or West Country? Brummie, Bristolian or Mancunian? If Scottish English, do you mean Morningside? Or Glaswegian? Or Insular? If Welsh English, do you mean North Wales, Cardiff, Valleys, South West? If Hiberno English, do you mean Ulster? Dub? Cork? Each of those separate dialects will probably have more variation between them than in the entirety of American English. Fgf10 (talk) 21:55, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I would expect the divergence began immediately upon the first colonists settling in America. After all, in those days there was no radio or TV or movies to expose the colonists to the mother-tongue, and there weren't many people who went back-and-forth between the colonies and Britain to "cross-pollinate" changes occurring on either side of the ocean. However, in the early days most colonists would have been born in Britain, so would have some memory of how English was spoken there. As the years progressed, however, and particularly after US independence, that was no longer the case. Also, people who moved to the interior of the US would have less exposure to British English than those on the coast, and particularly on the East Coast points nearest to the UK, such as Boston, which had more contact with British people, and hence remained a bit closer to the British tongue. Another effect of US independence was that many no longer wished to emulate Britain at that point. StuRat (talk) 22:07, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Even in the east coastal south, there are trace remnants of British pronunciation. I've heard stories of deep-south types having trouble understanding residents of Brooklyn. But even with the many variations of accents and idioms across the land, I think as Fgf said they are nowhere near as different as the various British Isles accents and idioms. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 22:18, 31 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

August 1

Spanish-language literature in Malayalam

Reading about a Kathakali version of Don Quixote, I read that the book had not been yet translated into Malayalam. On one hand, I can understand that, even if Don Quixote is considered a masterpiece of Spanish-language or even world literature, there are not many cultural links between Spanish language and Malayalam. On the other hand, I suppose that some Spanish-language books have been translated, but I cannot guess which. The question is: What translated books from Spanish language can a Malayalam reader find? Reading around, I find that missionaries translated some works from Latin, Portuguese and Spanish, but I suppose that those would be devotional books rarely read by modern readers. --Error (talk) 00:46, 1 August 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Did the British or French Empire have the larger colonial population in Africa?

At their peak say around 1920 which Empire controlled a larger part of the total continental African population, the British or the French?

--Gary123 (talk) 02:21, 1 August 2016 (UTC)[reply]

[1] ttps://travel.state.gov/content/passports/en/country/brazil.html

[1]