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Setting aside of Lords judgment

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I am unable to follow the claim in this article of an unprecedented setting aside of a decision of the House of Lords: 1) there isn't a reference either in the article or in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augusto_Pinochet%27s_arrest_and_trial 2) set aside by who? - I'm guessing set aside by the Lords

The judgement was set aside by other Lords: http://www.publications.parliament.uk/pa/ld199899/ldjudgmt/jd990115/pino01.htm and after, still other Lords then judged again the Pinochet case (so this makes 3 judgements by the House of Lords in the Pinochet case). Apokrif 16:53, 9 September 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I don't know if it was unprecedented to set aside a House of Lords judgment. The House of Lords is an old institution but I believe that there has been only one or two judges in England who have ever been publicly accused of bias. So, it is probably true that it was unprecedented for a HoL decision to be set aside on the grounds of bias, seeming or actual. And, as it was only in 20th century that the HoL decided it could abandon and contradict it's own decision in the past, then it is probably true that there have been no cases in the HoL that have been set aside. So, the setting aside of the judgment part is probably fine. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Zeusthezealous (talkcontribs) 14:05, 25 April 2011 (UTC)[reply]

Hoffmann not biased?

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" He later went on to comment "The fact is I'm not biased. I am a lawyer. I do things as a judge. The fact that my wife works as a secretary for Amnesty International is, as far as I am concerned, neither here nor there," he told the Daily Telegraph newspaper."

I think the point is that neither his wife's work at Amnesty International, nor the fact that Hoffmann was actually biased, was decisive for setting aside the judgement: rather, it was set aside because he looked biased, or could have been biased (Lord Nolan: "In any case where the impartiality of a judge is in question the appearance of the matter is just as important as the reality"). Apokrif 16:57, 9 September 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Indeed. From recollection of the time a lot of people noted that Hoffman's verdict on the case was entirely consistent with his legal philosophy implied by past cases (although I'm not aware of British law lords being analysed to the extent US Supreme Court judges are so am not sure if there are many accessible sources on this). Timrollpickering (talk) 09:40, 18 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]

What an arrogant man he is — Preceding unsigned comment added by 93.97.50.90 (talk) 15:47, 19 August 2016 (UTC)[reply]

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Is his Hong Kong judgement notable?

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I noticed his name as a "non-permanent judge" in the recent controversial ruling upholding the mask ban in Hong Kong: [1]. Is this important enough to be included in his biography? Particularly given there have been calls for the non-permanent judges to step down from the HK courts recently in light of developments there. AndrewRT(Talk) 16:32, 21 December 2020 (UTC)[reply]