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Why does this article begin with "one of the biggest and most important yeshivas in pre-World War II Europe," instead of "pre-Holocaust Europe"? I think that it's only appropriate to refer to pre-Holocaust, since this event is what caused the Yeshiva's downfall. World War II implies that this destruction of this region's Jewry was a direct result of a world war, rather than a direct result of genocide/the Holocaust. I hope this explanation is not too confusing--I can elaborate if necessary. --Stoopideggs217:14, 1 May 2007 (UTC)[reply]