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SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the direction)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of question in this section, with special
directions for each type.

Structure

Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrase, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word of phrase that
best competes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in
the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

B C D
The president ____ the election by a landslide
(A) won
(B) he won
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore,
you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
When ____ the conference?

(A) the doctor attended

(B) did the doctor attend
(C) the doctor will attend
(D) the doctor’s attendance

the sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Now begin work on the question.

1. The North Pole ____ a latitude of 90 (A) takes
degrees north. (B) it takes
(C) which takes
(A) it has (D) took
(B) is having
(C) which is having 7. Experiments _____ represent a giant
(D) has step into the medicine of the future.

2. The city of Beverly Hills is (A) using gene therapy

surrounded on _____ the city of Los (B) use gene therapy
Angeles. (C) they use
(D) gene therapy uses
(A) its sides
(B) the sides are 8. ______ off the Hawaiian coastline
(C) it is the side of are living others are dead
(D) all side by
(A) While some types of coral reefs
3. _____ greyhound, can achieve speeds (B) Some types of coral reefs
up to thirty-six miles per hour (C) There are many types of coral
reefs
(A) The (D) Coral reefs
(B) The fastest
(C) The fastest dog 9. Nimbostratus clouds are thick, dark
(D) The fastest dog, the gray clouds _____ forebode rain.

4. Marmots spend their time foraging (A) what

among meadow plants and flowers or (B) which
______ on rocky cliffs (C) what they
(D) which they
(A) Gets sun
(B) sunning 10. Some economists now suggest that
(C) the sun home equity loans are merely a new
(D) sunny trap to push consumers beyond ____

5. The greenhouse effect occurs _____ (A) they can afford

heat radiated from the Sun. (B) they can afford it
(C) what is affordable
(A) when does the Earth’s (D) able to afford
atmosphere trap
(B) does the Earth’s atmosphere trap 11. People who reverse the letters of
(C) when the Earth’s atmosphere words _____ to read suffer from
traps dyslexia
(D) the Earth’s atmosphere traps
(A) when trying
6. The Rose Bowl, ______ place on (B) is they tried
New Year’s Day, is the oldest (C) when tried
postseason collegiate football game (D) is he tries
in the United States.
12. Featured at the Henry Ford Museum
_____ of antique cars dating from
1865.

(A) is an exhibit
(B) an exhibit
(C) an exhibit is
(D) which is an exhibit

13. Rubber ____ from vulcanized

silicones with a high molecular
weight is difficult to distinguish from
natural rubber.

(A) is produced
(B) producing
(C) that produces
(D) produced

14. ______ appears considerably larger

at the horizon than it does overhead
is merely an optical illusion.

(A) The Moon

(B) That the Moon
(C) When the Moon
(D) The Moon which

15. According to the World Health

Organization. _____ any of the six
most dangerous disease to break out,
it could be cause for quarantine.

(A) were
(B) they were
(C) there were
(D) were they
 Written Expression

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrases that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
The research for the book Roots taking
A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve
years” Therefore, you should choose (C).

Now begin work on the question.

16. On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-toped mountains more than a
A B C D
mile beneath see level.

17. Because of the Flourish with which John Hancock signed the Declaration of
A
Independence, his name become synonymous with signature.
B C D
18. Segregation in public schools was declare unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
A B C
in 1954
D
19. Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude
A B
about twenty-three times that of the Sun.
C D
20. Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.
A B C D
21. Some of the most useful resistor material are carbon, metals, and metallic alloys.
A B C D
22. The community of Bethesda, Maryland, was previous known as Darcy’s Store.
A B C D
23. Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D
24. J. H. Pratt used group therapy early in this century when he brought tuberculosis
A B C
patients together to discuss its disease
D
25. The United States has import all carpet wools in recent years because domestic wools
A B C
are too fine and soft for carpets.
D
26. Irving Berlin wrote “Oh How I Hate to Get Up in the Morning” while serving in a
A B C
U.S Army during World War I.
D
27. Banks are rushing to merge because consolidations enable them to slash theirs costs
A B C
and expand.
D
28. That water has a very high specific heat means that without a large temperature
A B
change water can add or lose a large number of heat.
C D
29. Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer as well as a
A B C
classical musician
D
30. The state seal still used in Massachusetts designed by Paul Revere, who also designed
A B C
the first Continental currency
D
31. Quarter horses were developed in eighteenth-century Virginia to race on courses short
A B
of about a quarter of a mile in length.
C D
32. No longer satisfied with the emphasis of the Denishawn School, Marta Graham
A B C
has moved to the staff of the Eastman School in 1925
D
33. William Hart was an act best known for his roles as western heroes in silent films.
A B C D
34. Prior to an extermination program earlier this century, alive wolves roamed
A B C
across nearly all of North America.
D
35. During the 1960s the Berkeley campus of the University of California came to
A B
national attention as a result its radical political activity
C D
36. Artist Gutzon Borglum designer the Mount Rusmore Memorial and worked on
A
project from 1925 until his death in 1941.
B C D

37. It is roving less costly and more profitably for drugmakers to market directly to
A B C D
patients.

38. Sapphires weighing as much as two pounds have on occasion mined.

A B C D
39. Like snakes, lizard can be found on all others continents except Antartica.
A B C D

40. Banks, saving and loans, and finance companies have recently been doing home
A B
equity loans with greater frequency than ever before.
C D
This is the end of the Structures and Written Expression Pre-Test.

STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP

 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the directions )
Now set your clock for 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of question in this section, with special
direction for each type.

Structure
Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence will see four
words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word of phrase that best
competes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the
space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

A
The president ____ the election by a landslide B
(A) Won C
(B) he won D
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore,
you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

When ____ the conference? A

(A) The doctor attended B
(B) did the doctor attend C
(C) the doctor will attend D
(D) the doctor’s attendance

the sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Now begin work on the question.

1. ____ range in color from pale yellow (A) However
to bright orange. (B) Because of
(C) Although
(A) Canaries (D) That
(B) Canaries which
(C) That canaries 7. The Caldecott Medal _____ for the
(D) Canaries that are best children’s pictures book, is
awarded each January.
2. Carnivorous plants _____ insects to
obtain nitrogen. (A) is a prize which
(B) which prize
(A) are generally trapped (C) which is a prize
(B) trap generally (D) is a prize
(C) are trapped generally
(D) generally trap 8. Sports medicine is a medical
specially that deals with the
3. A Federal type of government result identification and treatment of
in _______ injuries to persons ______

(A) a vertical distribution of power (A) sports are involved

(B) power is distribution vertically (B) involved in sports
(C) vertically distributed (C) they are involved in sports
(D) the distribution of power is (D) sports involve them
vertical
9. The Wilmington Oil Field, in Long
4. February normally has twenty-eight Beach California, is one of ____ oil
days, but every fourth year, _____ fields in the continental United
has twenty nine. States.

(A) there (A) productive

(B) its (B) the most productive
(C) is a leap year (C) most are productive
(D) a leap year, it (D) productive

5. evidence suggest that one-quarter of 10. Thunder occurs as _____ through air,
operations _____ bypass surgery may causing the heated air to expand and
be unnecessary. collide with layers of cooler air.
(A) they involve
(B) involve (A) an electrical charge
(C) involving (B) passes an electrical charge
(D) which they involve (C) the passing of an electrical
charge
6. ______ a tornado spins in a (D) an electrical charge passes
counterclockwise direction in the
northern hemisphere, it spins in the 11. The population of Houston was
opposite direction in the southern ravage by yellow fever in 1839 ____
hemisphere. in 1867.
 (A) it happened again
(B) and again
(C) was ravage
(D) again once more

12. Researchers have long debated ____

Saturn’s moon Titan contains
hydrocarbon oceans and lakes

(A) over it
(B) whether the
(C) whether over
(D) whether

13. According to Bernoulli’s principle,

the higher speed of a Fluid gas, ____
the pressure.

(A) it will be lower

(B) lower than the
(C) the lower
(D) lower it is

14. The flight instructor _____ at the air

base said that orders not to fight has
been issued.

(A) when interviewed

(B) when he interviewed
(C) when the interview
(D) when interviewing

15. In the northern and central parts of

the state of Idaho _____ and
churning rivers.

(A) majestic mountains are found

(B) are majestic mountains found
(C) are found majestic mountains
(D) finding majestic mountains.
 Written Expression

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrases that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
The research for the book Roots taking
A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve
years” Therefore, you should choose (C).

Now begin work on the question.

16. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.
 A B C D

17. Every human typically have twenty-three pairs of chromosomes in most cells.
A B C D

18. In the sport of fencing, three type of swords are used: the foil, the epee, and the sabre.
A B C D

19. The Internal Revenue Service uses computers to check tax return computation, to
A B
determine the reasonableness of deductions, and for verifying the accuracy
C
of reported income.
D
20. There was four groups of twenty rats each involved in the test.
A B C D

21. The type of jazz known as “swing” introduced by Duke Ellington when he wrote and
A B C
record “It Don’t Mean a Thing If It Ain’t Got That Swing”
D

22. The bones of mammals, not alike those of other vertebrates, show a high degree of
A B C D
differentiation

23. The United States receives a lager amount of revenue from taxation of a tobacco
A B C D
products.

24. Much fats are composed of one molecule of glycerin combined with three molecules
A B C
of fatty acids.
D

25. The capital of the Confederacy was originally in Mobile, but they were moved to
A B C D
Richmond.

26. A pearl develops when a tiny grain of sand or some another irritant accidentally enter
A B C D
into the shell of a pearl oyster.

27. The English horn is an alto oboe with a pitch one fifth lower as that of the soprano
 A B C D
oboe.

28. In the Milky Way galaxy, the most recent observed supernova appeared in 1604.
A B C D

29. Although the name suggests otherwise, the ship known as Old Ironsides was built of
A B C
oak and cedar rather than it was built of iron.
D
30. Never in the history of humanity there have been more people living on this relative
A B C D
small planet.

31. Because of the mobile of Americans today, it is difficult for them to put down real
A B C D
roots.

32. For five years after the Civil War, Robert E. Lee served to president of Washington
A B
College, which later was called Washington and Lee.
C D
33. Doctors successfully used hypnosis during World War II to treat fatigue battle.
A B C D

34. The lobster, like many crustaceans, can cast off a damaging appendage and
A B C
regenerate a new appendage to nearly normal size.
D

35. The main cause of the oceans’ tides is the gravitation pull of the Moon.
A B C D

36. The curricula of American public schools are set in individual states; they do not
A B C D
determine by the federal government.

37. The fact that the sophisticated technology has become part of revolution in travel
A B
delivery system has not made travel schedules less hectic.
C D

38. Balanchin’s plotless ballets, such Jewels and The Four Temperaments, present dance
 A B C
purely as a celebration of the movement of the human body.
D
39. In a solar battery, a photosensitive semiconducting substance such as silicon crystal is
A B
the source of electrician.
C D

40. In early days hydrochloric acid was done by heating a mixture of sodium chloride
A B C
with iron sulfate.
D

This is the end of Section 2

If you finish before 25 minutes has ender,
Check your work on Section 2 only.

SECTION 3
 READING COMPHREHENSION
Time – 55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American
universities and colleges.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a
number of on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.

Read the following passage :

John Quincy Adam, who served as the sixth president of the United States
from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and
diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency an in the
Line various other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he
(5) demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and
the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.

Example I Sample Answer

A B C D

To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service”.
Therefore, you should choose (B)

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D

In line 4, the word “unswerving” is closest in meaning to

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving believe
“throughout his career”. This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you
should choose (C).

Now begin work on the questions.

Questions 1 – 9
 Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be
produced by combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is widely
used in industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use
in the production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been
banned for home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient
in cleaning compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to
be dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause severe
illness and even death if it is inhaled. Because of this dangerous characteristic,
the United States revoked permission for the home use of carbon tetrachloride in
1970. The United the United States has taken similar action with various other
chemical compounds.

1. The main point of this passage is that (B) colorless

(A) carbon tetrachloride can be very (C) a cleaning compound
dangerous when it is heated (D) inflammable
(B) the government banned carbon 6. The word “inhaled” in line 7 is
tetrachloride in 1970 closest in meaning to
(C) although carbon tetrachloride (A) warmed
can legally be used in industry, (B) breathed in
it is not allowed in home (C) carelessly used
products (D) blown
(D) carbon tetrachloride used to be a 7. The word “revoked” in line 8 could
regular part of cleaning most easily be replaced by
compounds (A) gave
2. the word “widely” in line 2 could (B) granted
most easily be replaced by (C) instituted
(A) grandly (D) took away
(B) extensively 8. It can be inferred from the passage
(C) largely that one role of the U.S government
(D) hugely is to
3. The word “banned” in line 4 is (A) Regulate product safety
closest in meaning to (B) Prohibit any use of carbon
(A) forbidden tetrachloride
(B) allowed (C) Instruct industry on cleaning
(C) suggested methodologies
(D) instituted (D) Ban the use of any chemicals
4. According to the passage, before 9. The paragraph following the passage
1970 carbon tetrachloride was most likely discusses
(A) used by itself as a cleanser (A) additional uses for carbon
(B) banned in industrial use tetrachloride
(C) often used as a component of (B) the banning of various
cleaning products chemical compounds by the
(D) not allowed in home cleaning U.S. government
products (C) further dangerous effects of
5. It is stated in the passage that when carbon tetrachloride
carbon tetrachloride is heated, it (D) the major characteristics of
becomes carbon tetrachloride
(A) harmful
Questions 10 – 19

The next artist in this survey of American artists is James Whistler; he is included
in this survey of American artists because he was born in the United States, although the
majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was born in Massachusetts in
1834, but nine years later his father moved the family to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work
on the construction of a railroad. The family returned to the United States in 1849. Two
years later Whistler entered the U.S. military academy at West Point, but he was unable
to graduate. At the age of twenty-one, Whistler went to Europe to study art despite
familial objections, and he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs.
However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in Gray and
Black No.1:Portrait of the Artist’s Mother or Whistler’s Mother, as it is more commonly
known. This painting shows a side view of Whistler’s mother, dressed in black posing
against a gray wall. The asymmetrical nature of the portrait, with his mother seated off-
center, is highly characteristic of Whistler’ work.

10. The paragraph preceding this passage (A) unable to find any work at all in
most likely discusses . the Russia
(A) a survey of eighteenth-century (B) highly supportive of his desire to
art. family was
(B) a different American artist. (C) working class
(C) Whistler’s other famous (D) military
paintings. 15. The word “objections” in line 7 is
(D) European artist. closest in meaning to .
11. Which of the following best (A) protests
describes the information in the (B) goals
passage ? (C) agreements
(A) Several artists are presented. (D) battles
(B) One artist’s life and works are 16. In line 8, the “etchings” are .
described. (A) a type of painting
(C) Various paintings are contrasted. (B) the same as a lithograph
(D) Whistler’s family life is outlined. (C) an art form introduced by
12. Whistler is considered an American Whistler
artist because . (D) an art form involving
(A) he was born in America engraving.
(B) he spent most of his life in 17. The word “asymmetrical” in line 11
America is closest in meaning to .
(C) he served in the U.S. military (A) proportionate
(D) he created most of his famous art (B) uneven
in America (C) balanced
13. The word “majority” in line 2 is (D) lyrical
closets in meaning to . 18. Which of the following is NOT true
(A) seniority according to the passage ?
(B) maturity (A) Whistler worked with a variety
(C) large pieces of art forms.
(D) high percentage (B) Whistler’s Mother is the not the
14. It is implied in the passage that official name of his painting.
Whistler’s family was . (C) Whistler is best known for his
etchings.
 (D) Whistler’s Mother is painted in 19. Where in the passage does the author
somber tones. mention the types of artwork that
Whistler was involved in ?
(A) Lines 1 – 3
(B) Lines 4 – 5
(C) Lines 6 – 7
(D) Lines 8 – 10

Questions 20 – 30

The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the naked
eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in position. Many
unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own permanent home in the
nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous
distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are barely
perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates why this
misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively rapid star like
Bernard’s star to move a distance in the skies equal to the diameter of the earth’s moon.
When the apparently negligible movement of the stars is contrasted with the movement of
the planets, the stars are seemingly unmoving.

20. Which of the following is the best (B) proven fact

title for this passage ? (C) erroneous belief
(A) What the Eye Can See in the Sky (D) theory
(B) Bernard’s Star 25. This passage states that in 200 years.
(C) Planetary Movement Bernard’s star can move.
(D) The Ever moving Stars (A) around Earth’s moon
21. The expression “naked eye” in line 1 (B) next to Earth’s moon
most probably refers to. (C) a distance equal to he distance
(A) a telescope from Earth to the Moon
(B) a scientific method for observing (D) a distance seemingly equal to
stars the diameter of the Moon
(C) unassisted vision 26. This passage implies that from Earth
(D) a camera with a powerful lens it appears that the planets.
22. According to the passage, the (A) are fixed in the sky
distances between the stars and Earth (B) move more slowly than the stars
are … (C) show approximately the same
(A) Barely perceptible amount of movement as the stars
(B) huge (D) travel through the sky
(C) fixed considerably more rapidly than
(D) moderate the stars
23. The word = “ perceptible” in line 5 is 27. The word “negligible” in line 8 could
closets in meaning to which of the most easily be replaced by.
following. (A) negative
(A) Noticeable (B) insignificant
(B) Persuasive (C) rapid
(C) Conceivable (D) distant
(D) Astonishing 28. Which of the following is NOT true
24. In line 6, a “misconception” is according to the passage ?
closest in meaning to a(n) (A) Stars do not appear to the eye to
(A) idea move
 (B) The large distance between (B) Bernard’s Star
stars and the earth tend to (C) The distance from Earth to the
magnify movement to the eye Moon .
(C) Bernard’s star moves quickly (D) Why stars are always moving
comparison with other stars. 30. This passage would most probably be
(D) Although stars move, they seem assigned reading in which course ?
to be fixed. (A) Astrology
29. The paragraph following the passage (B) Geophysics
most probably discusses. (C) Astronomy
(A) The movement of the planets (D) Geography

Questions 31 – 40

It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault
grounds : one spouse is deemed to be at fault in causing the divorce. More and
more today, however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.
Proponents of no-fault divorce argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely
the case that one marriage partner is completely to blame and the other blameless.
A failed marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by both partners.
Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court,
in a public arena, is a destructive process that only serves to lengthen the divorce
process and that dramatically increases the negative feelings present in a divorce.
If a couple can reach a decision to divorce without first deciding which partner is
to blame, the divorce settlement can be negotiated more easily and equitably and
the post divorce healing process can begin more rapidly.

31. What does the passage mainly (C) a no-fault divorce is not as
discuss ? equitable as a fault divorce
(A) Traditional grounds for divorce (D) people recover more slowly from
(B) Who is at fault in a divorce a no-fault divorce.
(C) Why no-fault divorces are 35. The word “Proponents” in line 4 is
becoming more common closest in meaning to which of the
(D) The various reasons for divorces following ?
32. The word “spouse” in line 1 is (A) Advocates
closest in meaning to a . (B) Recipients
(A) judge (C) Authorities
(B) problem (D) Enemies
(C) divorce decree 36. The passage states that a public trial
(D) marriage partner to prove the fault of one spouse can .
33. According to the passage, no-fault (A) be satisfying to the wronged
divorces . spouse
(A) are on the increase (B) lead to a shorter divorce process
(B) are the traditional form of (C) reduce negative feelings
divorce (D) be a harmful process
(C) are less popular than they used to 37. Which of following is NOT listed in
be this passage as an argument in favor
(D) were granted more in the past of no-fault divorce ?
34. It is implied in the passage that . (A) Rarely is only one marriage
(A) there recently has been a partner to blame for a divorce
decrease in no-fault divorces (B) A no-fault divorce generally
(B) not all divorces today are no- costs less in legal fees
fault divorces (C) Finding fault in a divorce
increases negative feelings
 (D) A no-fault divorce settlement is (A) development
generally easier to negotiate. (B) serenity
38. The word “present” in line 9 could (C) discussion
most easily be replaced by . (D) agreement
(A) existing 40. The tone of this passage is .
(B) giving (A) emotional
(C) introducing (B) enthusiastic
(D) resulting (C) expository
39. The word “Settlement” in line 10 is (D) reactionary
closest in meaning to .

Questions 41 – 50

Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had been
largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the revolutionary
fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected in the literature of the
time, which in turn served to further influence the population. Although not all writers of
this period supported the Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers,
Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine, were both strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother’s
newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a simple style of language
and common sense argumentation to defend the point of view of the farmer and the
Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense practicality and appeal to
the common man with his work on Poor Richard’s Almanac from 1733 until 1758.
Firmly established in his popular acceptance by the people, Franklin wrote a variety of
extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonists’ revolutionary cause
against England.
Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at
the time of the Revolution. Hus pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in 1976, was a
force in encouraging the colonists to declare their independence from England. Them
throughout the long and desperate war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from
1776 until 1783) to encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The
effectiveness of his writing was probably due to his emotional yet oversimplified
depiction of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good and
evil.

41. The paragraph preceding this passage (A) hour

most likely discusses . (B) period
(A) how literature influences the (C) appointment
population (D) duration
(B) religious and moral literature 44. It is implied in the passage that .
(C) literature supporting the cause of (A) some writers in the American
the American Revolution colonies supported England
(D) what made Thomas Paine’s during the Revolution
literature successful (B) Franklin and Paine were the only
42. The word “fervor” in line 2 is closest writers to influence the
in meaning to . Revolution
(A) war (C) because Thomas Paine was an
(B) anxiety Englishman, he supported
(C) spirit England against the colonies
(D) action (D) authors who supported England
43. The word “time” in line 3 could best did not remain in the colonies
be replace by . during the Revolution
45. The pronoun “he” in line 8 refers to .
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) Ben Franklin
(C) Ben Franklin’s brother
(D) Poor Richard
46. The expression “point of view” in
line 9 could best be replaced by .
(A) perspective
(B) sight
(C) circumstance
(D) trait
47. According to the passage. The tone
of Poor Richard’s Almanac is .
(A) pragmatic
(B) erudite
(C) theoretical
(D) scholarly
48. The word “desperate” on line 16
could best be replaced by .
(A) unending
(B) hopeless
(C) strategic
(D) combative
49. Where is the passage does the author
describe Thomas Paine’s style of
writing ?
(A) Lines 4 – 6
(B) Lines 8 – 9
(C) Lines 14 – 15
(D) Lines 18 – 20
50. The purpose of the passage is to .
(A) discuss American literature in the
first half of the eighteenth
century
(B) give biographical data on two
American writers
(C) explain which authors supported
the Revolution
(D) describe the literary influence
during revolutionary America