Australian Pharmacy Council Ltd

Intern Written Exam

Sample 2

This is an official Intern Written Examination sample paper produced by the

Australian Pharmacy Council Ltd (APC) for practice purposes only.

All questions in this sample paper are no longer used in live or actual examinations
and have been chosen to allow interns to gain exposure to the type of content and
layout of questions on the examination. Live or actual Intern Written Examinations
delivered contemporaneously will vary from this sample paper.

The Intern Written Examination is 125-questions long and candidates have 3 hours
to complete it.

Due to the frequent changes to the scope and content within the practice of
pharmacy in Australia, the APC does not guarantee that the information in this paper
is accurate or relevant once published publicly.

The actual Intern Written Examination is delivered by computer and interns should
visit the APC website for further information, including a link to an online tutorial:

https://www.pharmacycouncil.org.au/interns/prepare-for-an-exam/

Copyright © Australian Pharmacy Council Ltd.

The content of this document is the property of the Australian Pharmacy Council Ltd
and may not be reproduced.
1 What volume of 2% potassium permanganate solution is required in order to provide
200ml of 75mg/5ml potassium permanganate solution?

A 15ml

B 30ml

C 150ml

D 1500ml

E 450ml

2 In which schedule of the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and
Poisons would you find codeine tablets 30mg?

A Schedule 2

B Schedule 3

C Schedule 4

D Schedule 8

E Unscheduled

3 Substances, the safe use of which requires professional advice, but which should be
available to the public from a pharmacist without a prescription” is the general
description statement for which ONE of the following Poisons Schedules?

A Schedule 2

B Schedule 3

C Schedule 4

D Schedule 5

E Schedule 6
4 What does Regulation 24 of the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS) refer to?

A No requirement for a patient co-payment

B Application to patients with specific medical conditions only

C Supply of original and all of the repeats to be supplied at the one time

D Application to patients from a remote area where access to PBS supplies is

limited

E Increasing the maximum quantity or number of repeats of a prescription

5 A prescription item designated as an unrestricted PBS benefit item is BEST described

as a medication:

A That has no PBS determinations on its therapeutic use

B With a low therapeutic index, which requires close monitoring

C That can only be prescribed on the PBS for specific therapeutic uses

D That is restricted and requires prior approval from the Medicare Australia or the
Department of Veterans Affairs for a specific condition

E With a high chance of adverse events, which requires the prescriber to

consider carefully the risk benefit ratio for each specific patient

6 According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons, what
medicine is classified in Schedule 4?

A Prescription only medicine

B Pharmacist only medicine

C Controlled drug

D Pharmacy medicine

E Dangerous poison
7 What weight of potassium permanganate is required to produce 200 mL of solution
such that 50 mL of this solution diluted to 200 mL will produce a 1 in 400 solution?

A 0.2 g

B 0.4 g

C 1g

D 2g

E 4g

8 What is the ideal body weight for a 34 year old male who is 182 cm tall (of average
frame)?

A 77 kg

B 82 kg

C 87 kg

D 92 kg

E 97 kg

9 An adult patient is stabilised on 0.2g twice a day of an oral medicine. What is the
intravenous dose of the same medicine where the IV equivalent dose is 30% of the
total daily oral dose?

A 1300mcg/hour

B 5000mcg/hour

C 6600mcg/hour

D 2750mcg/hour

E 500mcg/hour
10 An 8 year old child (weight 25 kg) has been diagnosed with meningitis. She has been
prescribed dexamethasone at a dose of 0.6 mg/kg/day in four divided doses, for two
days. What is the total DAILY dose of dexamethasone prescribed?

A 6 mg

B 15 mg

C 25 mg

D 30 mg

E 90 mg

11 A baby (weighing 3.75kg) requires frusemide at 1.6mg/kg/day for 30 days. You have
several 30mL bottles of frusemide solution (10mg/mL) in stock. What is the required
total daily dose of frusemide solution?

A 0.6 mL

B 3.0 mL

C 4.8 mL

D 6.0 mL

E 18 mL

12 ZINC AND CASTOR OIL OINTMENT

Zinc oxide 7.5g

Castor oil 50.0g
Cetostearyl alcohol 2.0g
White beeswax 10.0g
Arachis oil 30.5g
The wt/mL of castor oil is 0.95 g.

The volume of castor oil required to make 500 g of this ointment is

A 210mL

B 225mL

C 237mL

D 250ml

E 263mL
13 A patient (height 1.7 m, weight 69 kg) is being treated for Hodgkin's disease with
dacarbazine 210 mg/m2 on day 1 and day 15 of each 28 day cycle. What dose of
dacarbazine is administered on day 15 of the cycle?

A 208 mg

B 379 mg

C 675 mg

D 1219 mg

E 1350 mg

14 According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons, what
classification does cyproheptadine hydrochloride 4mg (50) tablets belong to?

A Prescription only medicine

B Pharmacist only medicine

C Unscheduled

D Pharmacy medicine

E Controlled drug

15 Where can items to be recorded on Prescription Record Forms (PRFs) be recorded?

A Community pharmacies and approved hospitals

B Community pharmacies only

C Medical clinics and community pharmacies

D Approved hospitals and medical clinics

E Community pharmacies and community health centres

16 Buprenorphine is classified in Schedule 8 in the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling
of Medicines and Poisons. What sort of medicine is Buprenorphine?

A Prescription only medicine

B Pharmacist only medicine

C Controlled drug

D Pharmacy medicine

E Dangerous poison

17 What is the specific antidote for dabigatran?

A Protamine sulfate

B Vitamin K

C Antifactor Xa

D Vitamin E

E There is no specific antidote

18 Patients with chronic pain are occasionally enrolled in double blind analgesic infusion
studies at pain clinics. The studies involve the infusion of a pseudorandom, equi-
volumetric sequence of normal saline, lignocaine, thiopentone and fentanyl. The effect
on the pain score for each of these agents is reported by the patient. The patient is
unaware of the sequence.

Why is lignocaine included in these studies?

A It causes a diffuse pain state

B It acts as a ‘truth serum’

C A response suggests neuropathic pain

D It causes euphoria similar to opioids

E A response suggests opioid-resistant pain

19 When administered intravenously, which of the following medications should only be
given by infusion?

A Ceftazidime

B Hydrocortisone

C Vancomycin

D Metoclopramide

E Adenosine

20 A patient is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following

recommendations should you give them?

A Take 10mg of folic acid daily to prevent side effects

B Start intramuscular or subcutaneous therapy

C Continue the medication for at least 6 months to determine response

D Have renal and liver function checked every 6 months during therapy

E Avoid excessive or prolonged sun exposure

21 A patient with chronic back pain, related to a motor vehicle accident, is taking tramadol
with good effect. She is started on an antidepressant, sertraline, by her doctor.

In regards to these medications, the occurrence of which of the following side effects
should MOST concern you?

A Visual disturbances, drowsiness

B Constipation, sweating

C Hyperreflexia, agitation

D Hypertension, fatigue

E Dizziness, insomnia
22 Children experience different Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) to adults. Which of the
following statements regarding ADRs in children is INCORRECT?

A Severe skin reactions with lamotrigine are more frequently seen in children
than in adults

B There is a risk of tooth discolouration with tetracyclines used in children aged

up to 8 years of age

C Aspirin should not be used routinely in children because of the risk of

Kawasaki's disease

D Quinolones should be used with caution in children because of the risk of

arthropathies

E Valproate hepatotoxicity is seen most frequently in children less than 3 years

of age

23 When used to treat congestive heart failure (CHF), frusemide

A Must be used with digoxin for optimal effect

B Should be combined with an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor or an

angiotensin II receptor antagonist

C Can only be used if spironolactone is also prescribed

D Is not as effective as a thiazide

E Must be given with supplemental potassium

24 Which one of the following medications is the MOST appropriate for the treatment of
trigeminal neuralgia?

A Tramadol

B Carbamazepine

C Morphine SR

D Indomethacin

E Paracetamol/codeine
25 A female customer has been taking digoxin for an extended period. She presents to
your pharmacy with a prescription for herself that is a 10 day course of roxithromycin
tablets. What is the MOST appropriate action to take?

A Dispense the prescription and counsel her on the use of her antibiotics over
the next 10 days

B Consult her general practitioner to advise that roxithromycin may decrease

digoxin levels

C Advise her to contact her general practitioner immediately, should she

experience symptoms of digoxin toxicity

D Consult her general practitioner to advise that the combination should be

avoided due to a significant drug interaction

E Advise her to take the medications separately to reduce the likelihood of

potential drug interaction

26 Which of the following combinations of pharmacological effects would be produced by

timolol?

A Inotropic, positive chronotrope

B Not cardiovascular selective, positive chronotrope

C Cardiovascular selective, positive chronotrope

D Not cardiovascular selective, negative chronotrope

E Cardiovascular selective, negative chronotrope

27 A 25 year old female customer presents you with a prescription for levocabastine eye
drops 0.05% 1 drop twice daily for seasonal allergic conjunctivitis. Which of the
following advice is INCORRECT?

A Use the drops regularly, as it may take several days for symptom relief

B You may feel drowsy and the effects of alcohol may be increased

C The drops are proven to be safe to use during pregnancy

D Side effects may include stinging, mild eye irritation and headache

E The frequency of use may be increased to three to four times daily if necessary
28 A male patient, aged 59 years, presents a prescription for sotalol 80 mg tablets, with a
dose of 160 mg daily. He has never taken sotalol before. How should you advise him
to take this medication?

A Once a day without regard to meals

B Twice a day on an empty stomach

C Once a day on an empty stomach

D Twice a day with or immediately after food

E Once a day at bedtime

29 With which of the following medications is it MOST important to maintain a high fluid
intake?

A Spironolactone

B Indapamide

C Norfloxacin

D Cephalexin

E Frusemide

30 The refrigerator in the pharmacy that is used for storage of pharmaceutical products
should be kept at a temperature of

A 0-3 oC

B 2-8 oC

C 5-10 oC

D 6-12 oC

E Minus 3-8 oC
31 A frail female customer presents with a repeat prescription for verapamil sustained
release 240 mg tablets - half a tablet to be taken twice daily. She also presents a new
prescription for erythromycin 250 mg qid (to treat a chest infection).

What is the MOST appropriate recommendation to make to the prescriber?

A Change the antibiotic to ciprofloxacin, because it is the medication of choice for

upper respiratory tract infection

B Change the antibiotic to doxycycline, because it is the medication of choice for

community- acquired pneumonia

C Increase the erythromycin to 500 mg qid, because verapamil increases the

metabolism of erythromycin

D Change to another antibiotic because erythromycin could lead to increased

plasma concentration of verapamil in this patient

32 You make the following ointment for a female patient who has psoriasis

Coal Tar Solution 8%

Dithranol 0.25 %
Yellow Soft Paraffin to 100 g

The patient has not had this preparation before. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?

A Erythema may occur

B Ointment may stain the skin and hair

C Ointment may stain bed linen and clothing

D Avoid contact with the eyes and any broken skin

E Improvement of condition can be expected within a few days, if used regularly

33 With which of the following medications is it recommended that alcohol consumption

be avoided?

A Digoxin

B Ramipril

C Sulphasalazine

D Lorazepam

E Aspirin
34 A patient comes into the pharmacy with a prescription for rifampicin 600mg. Looking
through her profile you see she is on an oral contraceptive. Which of the following is
MOST appropriate advice for this patient?

A Use a second method of oral contraception during treatment and for 4 weeks
after the last dose

B Skip any inactive tablets in the present pack and then proceed to the active
tablets in a new pack

C Use a second method of contraception and continue this until 7 days after
completion of the course of rifampicin

D A typical course of rifampicin does not affect oral contraception

E A second method of contraception will only be required if the rifampicin causes

breakthrough bleeding

35 A regular patient returns to the pharmacy complaining that her fluticasone inhaler
dispensed last week isn't providing improvement of her asthma symptoms. What
would be the BEST course of action?

A Contact the doctor and suggest a change to fluticasone/salmeterol inhaler

B Suggest she continues the medication, but refer her to her doctor

C Suggest she takes an antihistamine in addition to fluticasone and see her

doctor if she has no relief in three to four days

D Check her inhaler technique, advise her to continue treatment and see her
doctor if there is no improvement

E Recommend she commences regular salbutamol with a spacer and see her
doctor in two days if no relief

36 A patient has heartburn. After questioning him, which one of the following factors
would NOT necessitate a referral to a doctor?

A Sudden weight loss

B Blood in stools

C Difficulty swallowing

D Bloating and reflux

E History of taking NSAIDs

37 Which one of the following conditions has NOT been traditionally treated by Gingko?

A Vertigo

B Memory loss

C Poor concentration

D Bloating

E Chilblains

38 A patient with diverticular disease is instructed to take a laxative. Which of the

following should you recommend?

A Senna tablets

B Sodium picosulfate drops

C Glycerol suppositories

D Ispaghula husk sachets

E Bisacodyl tablets

39 Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of head lice?

A Itch, especially toward back of neck

B Blotchy flat, red rash behind ears and on face

C Tiny dark lice on scalp

D White specks stuck to base of hair shaft

E White specks spread throughout hair

40 Which one of the following factors is LEAST likely to precipitate the onset of herpes
labialis?

A Common cold

B Sun exposure

C Trauma to the lips

D Dental decay

E Immunosuppression
41 Which one of the following conditions is LEAST likely to cause rectal bleeding?

A Haemorrhoids

B Crohn's disease

C Colorectal cancer

D Anal fissure

E Irritable bowel syndrome

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: John Ascot

Address: Room Number 48
Age: 68 Height: 168cm
Sex: Male Weight: 78kg
Allergies: Sticking plaster

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Shortness of breath
2. Fainting
Medical History: 1. Heart failure
2. Asthma
3. Hypertension
4. Gout
5. Depression

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range
10/11 + (3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L)
K =3.2 mmol/L

30/10 Cr=0.11 mmol/L (0.05 - 0.12 mmol/L)

30/10 + (3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L)

K =3.6 mmol/L

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
2/11 Frusemide 40mg 100 ii daily
30/10 Amlodipine 10mg 30 i mane
30/10 Beclomethasone 100mcg/dose mdi ii bd
30/10 Fluoxetine 20 mg 28 i daily
30/10 Frusemide 40mg 100 i mane
30/10 Perindopril 4mg 30 i daily
30/10 Potassium Slow Release 600 mg 100 ii daily
30/10 Salbutamol 5mg/2.5mL 60 i prn neb
30/10 Simvastatin 40 mg 30 i nocte

Pharmacist's Notes
DIETARY CONSIDERATIONS
30/10 Low fat/low salt diet
42 Which one of the following combinations of medications is treating the patient's heart
failure?

A Perindopril and amlodipine

B Amlodipine, frusemide and perindopril

C Perindopril and frusemide

D Simvastatin and perindopril

E Simvastatin, perindopril and amlodipine

43 If the patient had an acute attack of gout while in hospital, which one of the following
would be the MOST appropriate medication?

A Allopurinol

B Paracetamol

C Colchicine

D Aspirin

E Indomethacin

44 While in hospital the patient acquires infective endocarditis, with positive blood
cultures for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following
antibiotics would be the MOST effective?

A Cefoxitin

B Ticarcillin/clavulanic acid

C Vancomycin

D Flucloxacillin

E Cefotaxime
45 The patient's potassium levels are found to be low. Which one of the following
combinations of medication is MOST likely to be the cause?

A Simvastatin and perindopril

B Perindopril and frusemide

C Salbutamol and amlodipine

D Frusemide and salbutamol

E Amlodipine and simvastatin

46 Which one of the following is NOT an adverse effect normally associated with
fluoxetine?

A Anxiety

B Insomnia

C Sexual dysfunction

D Weight loss

E Urinary retention

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Veronica Shallay

Address: 66 Wilkes Street, Sherbrooke VIC
3804
Age: 17 Height: 160cm
Sex: Female Weight: 54kg
Allergies: Nil Known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Severe acne with scarring
Medical History:

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
3/6 Isotretinoin 20 mg 60 ii daily

Pharmacist's Notes
3/6 The patient has been to a dermatologist for review.
47 When counselling this patient, you should emphasise that pregnancy must be avoided
whilst on isotretinoin and for what period of time afterwards?

A 14 days

B 30 days

C 60 days

D Three months

E Six months

48 Side effects of oral isotretinoin include all of the following EXCEPT

A Dry eyes

B Photosensitivity

C Mood changes

D Dry skin

E Skin atrophy

49 Which of the following regarding this patient's acne is NOT appropriate advice?

A Avoid oil-based makeup

B Avoid topical anti-acne preparations

C The skin should be exfoliated twice daily

D Acne may be due to changes in hormonal levels

E Do not squeeze pustules as this can worsen scarring

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Irene Trotter

Address: 45 Laurel Lane, Madison
Age: 55 Height: 170cm
Sex: Female Weight: 65kg
Allergies: Sulfonamides

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Regular check-up with general practitioner
Medical History: 1. Glaucoma
2. Asthma
3. Heart failure

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
18/8 Dorzolamide eye drops 2 % 5 ml i tds

20/7 Budesonide 400 mcg 1 ii bd

16/7 Timolol 0.25 % eye drops 5 mL i bd

20/1 Beclomethasone MDI 100mcg/actuation 1 i bd

20/1 Enalapril 20 mg 30 i mane

20/1 Pilocarpine 2 % Eye Drops 5 mL i qid

20/1 Salbutamol MDI 100mcg/actuation 2 i-ii prn

Pharmacist's Notes
20/7 Budesonide replaced beclomethasone inhaler due to worsening asthma.
18/7 Timolol eye drops ceased.
16/7 Timolol commenced.
9/7 Pilocarpine ceased due to severe stinging.
50 Which one of the following is the LEAST appropriate for the treatment of Mrs Trotter's
open angle glaucoma?

A Travoprost

B Pilocarpine

C Latanoprost

D Brimonidine

E Bimatoprost

51 Mrs Trotter was transferred from pilocarpine to timolol. Which of the following
statements is CORRECT? Timolol causes:

A Miosis

B Tachycardia

C Less bronchospasm than betaxolol

D Bradycardia

E Mydriasis

52 Dorzolamide is contraindicated for glaucoma in patients with:

A Reversible airways disease

B A heart-rate less than 50 beats per minute

C Severe iritis

D Severe allergy to co-trimoxazole

E Depression
PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Valma King

Address: 14 King Street, Sandy Bay
Age: 56 Height: 162cm
Sex: Female Weight: 60kg
Allergies: Nil known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Peripheral oedema.
2. Increasing frequency of seizure
Medical History: 1. Epilepsy
2. Hypertension
3. Osteoarthritis
4. Depression

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
7/10 Amoxycillin 500 mg 20 i tds

7/10 Fluoxetine 20mg 28 i nocte

10/7 Frusemide 40mg 100 i mane

10/5 Indomethacin 25 mg 100 i bd

10/5 Lercanidipine 20mg 30 i daily

10/5 Phenytoin 100 mg 200 i tds

Pharmacist's Notes
07/10 Respiratory infection
53 Which medication is MOST likely to worsen Mrs King's hypertension control?

A Amoxycillin

B Frusemide

C Fluoxetine

D Phenytoin

E Indomethacin

54 Which ONE of the following medications is MOST likely causing Mrs King's legs to
swell?

A Phenytoin

B Lercanidipine

C Fluoxetine

D Frusemide

E Indomethacin

55 Following a change in the dose of phenytoin, how much time should be allowed to
elapse before measuring steady state phenytoin levels again?

A Twenty-four hours

B Two days

C One week

D Three weeks

E One month

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Mr Ahmed Hallad

Address: 142 Sydney Road, Brunswick
Age: 65 Height: 165cm
Sex: Male Weight: 60kg
Allergies: Penicillin (rash)

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Shingles (herpes zoster)
Medical History: 1. Hypertension
2. High cholesterol
3. Transient ischaemic attacks

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
18/2 Aspirin 100 mg 100 i nocte

18/2 Pravastatin 40mg 30 i nocte

18/2 Ramipril 10mg 30 i nocte

Pharmacist's Notes
18/2 Has been taking aspirin, pravastatin and ramipril for more than 5 years.
Has had compliance problems – prefers to take the least number of tablets and
all of his tablets at once if possible.
56 Herpes zoster can respond to antiviral therapy if therapy is begun within which of the
following time frames (of onset of symptoms)?

A 12 hours

B 24 hours

C 48 hours

D 72 hours

E One week

57 Which of the following medications would be the MOST suitable option to treat Mr
Hallad's shingles?

A Famciclovir

B Cephalexin

C Aciclovir

D Amoxycillin

E Ritonavir

58 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate topical agent in this instance?

A Capsaicin cream

B A moisturiser

C Aqueous cream

D 0.5% hydrocortisone cream

E A hydrogel
59 Post-herpetic neuralgia is a painful condition that can occur after an attack of shingles.
Which of the following preparations is NOT used in the treatment of post-herpetic
neuralgia?

A Lignocaine 5% applied topically

B Gabapentin

C Carbamazepine

D Phenelzine

E Amitriptyline

60 Mr Hallad should be encouraged to be immunised against influenza and

pneumococcal disease. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Mr Hallad

A Should receive both the pneumococcal conjugate and the polyvalent vaccines

B Can be immunised against influenza and pneumococcal by having the

vaccines administered on the same day

C Should be re-vaccinated yearly for the influenza vaccine, to match the current
circulating virus

D May experience pain at the injection site and 'flu-like' symptoms

E Should receive the pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Charles Xue

Address: 5 Agapanthus Lane, Wittaker
Age: 63 Height: 180cm
Sex: Male Weight: 70kg
Allergies: Nil known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Lung cancer
Medical History: 1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
10/11 Morpine sulfate SR 30mg 20 i bd

3/11 Morphine Mixture 5mg/mL 200mL 3ml qid

3/11 Prednisolone 5mg 30 i daily

3/11 Salbutamol 5mg/2.5mL 60 i qid

3/11 Tiotropium 18mcg 30 i daily

Pharmacist's Notes
10/11 Palliative care
10/11 Patient to incorporate sustained release morphine therapy and cease existing
morphine sulfate mixture.
61 Mr Xue presents with an initial prescription for sustained release morphine and asks
your advice about when to start it. You should advise him to commence the first dose

A With the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take the tablets 12 hourly ie
8am, 8pm

B 4 hours after the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take the tablets 12
hourly ie 8am, 8pm

C 8 hours after the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take the tablets
twice a day when you get up and when you go to bed

D 4 hours after the usual dose of morphine mixture tonight. Take subsequent
doses when in pain

62 Given the current dose of slow release morphine, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate dose of morphine mixture for breakthrough pain?

A 0.4 to 0.8 mL

B 1 to 2 mL

C 3 to 4 mL

D 4 to 5 mL

E 6 to 8 mL

63 Mrs Xue states that her husband is constipated. He has been taking psyllium
regularly but it doesn't seem to help. Which of the following would be the laxative
regimen of choice?

A Liquid paraffin emulsion 45ml at night and increase the psyllium

B Docusate and sennosides 1-2 tablets twice daily and maintain the psyllium

C 1 micro-enema and cease the psyllium

D Bisacodyl suppositories (2 at night) and cease the psyllium

E Glycerin adult suppositories

64 When prescribing morphine therapy for Mr Xue, all of the following are important
considerations EXCEPT

A Attention to appropriate aperients (laxatives)

B Attention to appropriate anti-emetics

C Ensuring the dose is effective

D Ensuring adequate supplies of medication

E Ensuring dose does not exceed recommended maximum

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Bob Roberts

Address: Room Number 78 Fairview
Nursing Home
Age: 90 Height: 183cm
Sex: Male Weight: 55kg
Allergies: Nil known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Painful knee
2. Immobility
3. Falls
Medical History: 1. Constipation
2. Gastrointestinal reflux
3. Prostatic hypertrophy
4. Mild dementia

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range
14/10 BP 130/90 sitting 100/90 standing

14/10 Serum creatinine 0.11mmol/L (0.05 - 0.12mmol/L)

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
14/10 Fluoxetine 20mg 28 ½ mane

14/10 Risperidone 1mg 60 i nocte

5/9 Allopurinol 300mg 60 i nocte

5/9 Tamsulosin 0.4mg 28 i daily

6/3 Lactulose 0.67g/mL 500mL 15mL nocte

6/3 Naproxen Oral liquid 25mg/mL 474mL 20mL bd

6/3 Ranitidine 150mg 30 bd

Pharmacist's Notes
20/10 Recommend naproxen be discontinued and replaced with paracetamol 500mg
ii q 6 hours.
65 Which of Mr Roberts' medications has been associated with an increase in the
incidence of cerebral strokes?

A Risperidone

B Fluoxetine

C Allopurinol

D Ranitidine

E Tamsulosin

66 Which of the following medications is MOST likely to have contributed to Mr Roberts'

postural hypotension?

A Risperidone

B Allopurinol

C Naproxen

D Lactulose

E Ranitidine

67 Which of the following medications is MOST likely to cause skin rash in this patient?

A Tamsulosin

B Naproxen

C Risperidone

D Fluoxetine

E Allopurinol
68 Which of the following daily doses of allopurinol should you recommend to Mr Roberts'
doctor, as appropriate to use in this patient?

A 100mg

B 300mg

C 400mg

D 500mg

69 Which of the following medications is MOST extensively cleared unchanged by the

renal route?

A Ranitidine

B Risperidone

C Naproxen

D Allopurinol

E Paracetamol

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Mary Johnson

Address: 7 Primrose Street, Cornly VIC
3052
Age: 57 Height: 166cm
Sex: Female Weight: 78kg
Allergies: Nil known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Menopause
Medical History:

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
3/10 Norethisterone 5 mg 30 ½ daily

3/10 Oestradiol 2 mg 56 ii daily

Pharmacist's Notes
Nil
70 Mrs Johnson complains of breakthrough bleeding. Which of the following should you
recommend to address this symptom?

A Decrease norethisterone

B Discontinue oestradiol valerate

C Discontinue norethisterone

D Increase oestradiol valerate

E Increase norethisterone

71 Mrs Johnson has been prescribed norethisterone. The use of a progestogen is only
indicated

A If the patient has an intact uterus

B If the patient has no uterus

C If there is no relief with oestrogen alone

D For women below 35 years of age

E For women experiencing perimenopause

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Jeff Cooper

Address: 15 Basil Street, Flagstaff
Age: 73 Height: 178cm
Sex: Male Weight: 77kg
Allergies: Penicillin - rash and worsening
asthma symptoms

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Urinary tract infection
Medical History: 1. Congestive heart failure
2. Asthma
3. Osteoarthritis

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
1/10 Diclofenac 50mg 50 i tds

16/9 Simvastatin 20mg 30 i nocte

12/9 Aspirin 100mg 84 i daily

8/8 Metoprolol 100mg 60 i bd

30/6 Hydrochlorothiazide 25mg 50 i mane

5/5 Digoxin 250mcg 100 i daily

8/4 Paracetamol 500mg 100 ii prn

8/4 Beclomethasone MDI 100mcg/actuation 1 ii bd

23/3 Oxazepam 15mg 50 ½ prn

12/1 Salbutamol MDI 100mcg/actuation 2 ii prn

Pharmacist's Notes
1/10 Mrs Cooper says that her husband complains of painful urination. Over the
past weeks he has also been experiencing nausea.
72 Mr Cooper presents a prescription for amoxycillin 500mg / clavulanic acid 125mg i bd,
for his urinary tract infection. You contact the prescriber regarding Mr Cooper's
penicillin allergy and he asks for a suggestion for an alternative antibiotic.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate selection?

A Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

B Nitrofurantoin

C Cephalexin

D Trimethoprim

E Norfloxacin

73 What should you suggest to Mrs Cooper to address the burning symptoms of her
husband's urinary tract infection?

A Reduce his fluid intake and take an urinary alkaliser

B Drink copious fluids and take an urinary alkaliniser

C Take an urinary alkaliniser and maintain usual fluid intake

D Double the hydrochlorothiazide dose and drink plenty of fluids

E Take paracetamol to relieve the pain

74 In monitoring the response to treatment for the urinary tract infection, which laboratory
test would be MOST appropriate for Mr Cooper?

A Activated prothrombin time

B Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

C HbA1c

D Full blood count

E C-reactive protein
75 Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of Mr Cooper's worsening
asthma?

A Diclofenac/paracetamol/metoprolol

B Metoprolol/simvastatin/oxazepam

C Metoprolol only

D Diclofenac/aspirin

E Aspirin/diclofenac/metoprolol

76 Which of the following medication therapies would be the MOST likely cause of Mr
Cooper's nausea?

A Diclofenac and digoxin

B Beclomethasone and digoxin

C Diclofenac and beclomethasone

D Metoprolol and hyrochlorothiazide

E Simvastatin and diclofenac

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

77 Which one of the following is NOT a source of Vitamin B12?

A Milk

B Egg

C Kidney

D Liver

E Pumpkin

78 A female customer with a history of epilepsy that is currently well controlled with
phenytoin is planning to become pregnant over the next few months. She is due to
see her doctor, but asks your advice as to what the requirements might be.

Which one of the following statements is the LEAST appropriate advice?

A Withdrawal of antiepileptics should be considered if seizure free period has

been at least two years, or the dose lowered to as much as possible

B Folic acid 5 mg daily should be taken for at least one month before pregnancy,
with no change in antiepileptic dose

C Some antiepileptics require vitamin K 20 mg daily to be taken from 36 weeks

gestation onward

D Stopping antiepileptic treatment after the diagnosis of pregnancy is reported to

lower the risk of congenital malformations

79 What would be the MOST appropriate treatment for constipation in a female patient
during her 2nd trimester of pregnancy?

A Docusate and sennosides

B Bisacodyl

C Polyethylene glycol

D Sennoside granules

E Psyllium husk
80 Which of the following medications is NOT commonly associated with dry mouth, as a
condition in the elderly?

A Tricyclic antidepressants

B Antihistamines

C Antipsychotics

D Diuretics

E Antibiotics

81 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate treatment for ear wax impaction?

A Acetic acid

B Carbamide peroxide

C Baby oil and cotton buds

D Olive oil and cotton buds

E Isopropyl alcohol

82 A female customer, who regularly worms the family pets, comes in to get a product to
worm her children (8, 6 and 3 years of age) 'just to be on the safe side'. You should
advise her to

A Use an ivermectin preparation

B Use a mebendazole preparation

C Avoid worming, unless the family shows signs of infestation

D Avoid cross-infection by worming the family and the animals on the same day
83 With regard to the treatment of scabies with benzyl benzoate, which of the following
statements is INCORRECT?

A Re-application is required if itch persists for longer than 2 weeks

B Treatment should be applied to the affected person, all household/family

members and close contacts at the same time

C It is used as an alternative when permethrin cream is unsuitable as it

commonly causes irritation when first applied

D The lotion must be diluted for use on children to reduce irritation, but this
reduces efficacy

E Common adverse effects include stinging and a burning sensation

84 With regard to maldison (malathion) head lice lotion, which of the following statements
is CORRECT?

A Hair must be wet before application

B Allow hair to dry naturally after use

C The lotion must be rinsed out after 10 minutes

D The shampoo product is preferred to the lotion

E It is recommended as safe to use during pregnancy

85 A female patient comes in with a prescription for erythromycin 250mg qid 7/7. She is
also suffering from hayfever. She would like a non-sedating antihistamine. Which of
the following should you suggest?

A Fexofenadine

B Dexchlorpheniramine

C Certirizine

D Loratadine
86 Which of the following is INCORRECT, with regards to heartburn?

A Heartburn is often aggravated by bending or lying down

B Children with symptoms of heartburn should be referred to a doctor

C Severe chest pain can occur and can be difficult to distinguish from a heart
attack

D Small meals, eaten frequently, are better than large meals in the prevention of
heartburn

E Difficulty in swallowing is a common symptom and does not require referral

87 Which of the following is NOT considered effective in the treatment of dandruff?

A Coal tar

B Terbinafine

C Ketoconazole

D Zinc pyrithione

E Selenium sulfide

88 With regard to infantile diarrhoea which of the following is CORRECT advice?

A Foods should not be given until diarrhoea has resolved

B Fruit drinks or lemonade should be given for rehydration

C Breast milk should be withheld until diarrhoea has resolved

D Formula feeds should be diluted until diarrhoea has resolved

E Antimotility medications are not suitable for children under 2 years of age
89 A male customer with high nicotine dependence wishes to give up smoking and asks
your advice about nicotine gum. You should counsel him to do all of the following
EXCEPT...

A Substitute cigarettes with nicotine gum

B Chew slowly so as not to upset stomach

C If soreness of the mouth occurs, a patch can used instead

D Gradually increase the number of pieces of gum being used

E The combined use of patches and gum can be used for severe dependence

90 A 70 year old female customer seeks information about self-management strategies

for osteoporosis. Which of the following recommendations is INAPPROPRIATE?

A Calcium supplementation

B Adequate intake of dairy products

C Glucosamine supplementation

D Vitamin D exposure/supplementation

E Weight-bearing exercise

91 With regards to dry eye syndrome, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A Patients may suffer with recurring eye infections

B It may occur in conjunction with rheumatoid arthritis

C May caused by sedating antihistamines

D Excessive tear production is often a sympton

E Artificial tear preparations have a similar viscosity to natural tears

92 All of the following are risk factors for developing osteoporosis EXCEPT

A Lack of physical exercise

B Amenorrhoea due to excessive physical training

C Long term corticosteroid administration

D Limited sun exposure

E Use of the combined oral contraceptive

93 Which of the following combinations lists the MOST common risk factors for heart
disease?

A Cholesterol > 5.5, low fibre diet, smoking, obesity

B Smoking, obesity, high blood pressure, cholesterol > 5.5

C Low fish diet, infrequent exercise, smoking, high blood pressure

D Low fibre diet, smoking, infrequent exercise

E Obesity, renal impairment, hyperlipidemia

94 Which one of the following groups of symptoms BEST describes the common signs of
dehydration?

A Thirst, excitability, sunken eyes, decreased skin turgor

B Decreased urine output, lethargy, sunken eyes, decreased skin turgor

C Loss of consciousness, excessive urination, sunken eyes, loss of appetite

D Lethargy, excess sweating, sunken eyes, blurred vision

95 Which of the following statements is CORRECT with respect to pain control in the
terminally ill?

A Morphine is the medication of choice for treating bone pain

B Analgesics are more effective if given regularly rather than as required

C There is no place for paracetamol in treating this group of patients

D There is no need to adjust the dose of morphine when changing from oral to
parenteral therapy

E Constipation does not usually occur with morphine administration

96 Which of the following is NOT a medication used (either alone or in combination with
other therapy) to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease?

A Methyldopa

B Pergolide

C Apomorphine

D Entacapone

E Benztropine
97 Which of the following is the MOST prominent haematological adverse medication
reaction associated with heparin?

A Aplastic anaemia

B Haemolysis

C Agranulocytosis

D Thrombocytopenia

E Lymphocytopenia

98 Which one of the following statements best describes open-angle glaucoma?

A A sudden attack of increased pressure in the eye

B Acute obstruction of the drainage of aqueous humour

C Impairment of drainage in the trabecular network

D Onset of severe pain and loss of vision

E A sudden onset of tunnel vision

99 Which of the following antibiotics is the MOST appropriate for the treatment of mastitis
in a breast feeding mother with a known acute penicillin allergy?

A Clindamycin

B Flucloxacillin

C Doxycycline

D Roxithromycin

E Cephalexin

100 Which of the following medications is MOST likely to cause postural hypotension?

A Prazosin

B Amlodipine

C Candesartan

D Atenolol

E Enalapril
101 A female patient discovers that she has missed the fifth dose of her triphasic
combined oral contraceptive (21s), which was due more than 24 hours ago. She
seeks your advice on how to guarantee contraceptive cover.

What is the MOST appropriate advice?

A She should take the missed dose as soon as possible, then continue taking the
tablets as normal and she will still be covered

B She should not take missed dose; but continue with next day's dose at usual
time and use other contraceptive methods for at least 14 days

C She should take the missed dose as soon as possible, then continue taking the
tablets as normal, and use other contraceptive methods for at least 7 days

D She should take the missed dose as soon as possible, then continue taking the
tablets as normal and use other contraceptive methods for at least another 21
days

102 Long term use of continuous/combined hormone replacement therapy may be

associated with an increased risk of

A Colorectal cancer

B Platelet adhesion

C Breast cancer

D Endometriosis

E Uterine cancer

103 All of the following medications routinely require therapeutic drug monitoring EXCEPT

A Gentamicin

B Cyclosporin

C Lithium

D Enoxaparin

E Perhexeline
104 What baseline laboratory value/tests should be obtained prior to initiating therapy with
amiodarone?

A Liver function tests / international normalised ratio / serum creatinine

B Liver function tests / thyroid function tests / respiratory function

C Liver function / thyroid function tests / full blood count

D International normalised ratio / thyroid function tests / serum creatinine

105 Which of the following measures should you recommend when a patient, who has
been receiving amiodarone for 1 year, is commenced on digoxin?

A Start with a higher than normal dose of digoxin and monitor amiodarone levels

B Start with a lower than normal dose of digoxin and monitor digoxin levels

C Increase the normal amiodarone dose and monitor digoxin levels

D Decrease the normal amiodarone dose and monitor digoxin levels

E Add clopidogrel to minimise the chance of clotting

106 When treating rheumatoid arthritis with methotrexate, which of the following is
CORRECT?

A Methotrexate should be taken every day at the same time

B A missed dose should be taken together with the next dose

C Trimethoprim is the antibiotic of choice to treat acquired infections

D Adverse effects can occur acutely and in the long term

E Coughing and wheezing are common side effects that subside with continued
use

107 Which one of the following medicines should be avoided when using donepezil due to
its antagonistic side effects?

A Galantamine

B Prazosin

C Amitriptyline

D Sertraline

E Moclobemide
108 A 75-year old patient with hypertension is diagnosed with rapid atrial fibrillation. Which
of the following medications is the MOST appropriate for stroke prevention in this
patient?

A Aspirin

B Warfarin

C Dipyridamole

D Clopidogrel

E Ticlopidine

109 Antibiotic-associated diarrhoea is MOST commonly associated with a new growth of

which of the following organisms?

A Clostridium perfringens

B Salmonella typhimurium

C Bacteroides fragilis

D Clostridium difficile

E Escherichia coli

110 The dosage of aciclovir should be adjusted on the basis of

A Serum bilirubin

B Hydration levels

C Hepatic function

D The patient's age

E Renal function
111 Which ONE of the following medications will MOST likely contribute to urinary
hesitancy?

A Lamotrigine

B Selegiline

C Mirtazipine

D Benztropine

E Venlafaxine

112 A customer returns to your pharmacy for a repeat prescription, but complains that she
has lost her appetite since commencing on this new medication.

Which ONE of the following medications is the MOST likely to have caused this?

A Atorvastatin

B Sertraline

C Naproxen

D Amoxycillin

E Glimepiride

113 What are the MOST common side effects of methotrexate?

A Ulcerative stomatitis, fatigue, chills, fever

B Photosensitivity, leucopenia, dizziness, nausea

C Leucopenia, nausea, rashes, dizziness

D Abdominal distress, blurred vision, alopecia, itch

E Oral mucositis, urticaria, nausea and vomiting

114 The MOST likely outcome from the co-administration of an angiotension converting
enzyme inhibitor and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications is

A Cough

B Hypokalemia

C Renal dysfunction

D Hypotension

E Neutropenia
PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Ivan Hardovic

Address: 15, Children’s Ward
Age: 13 months Height: 75cm
Sex: Male Weight: 11.5kg
Allergies: Nil known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Worsening ascites, febrile, extremely grizzly, painful
teething
Medical History: 1. Severe liver failure

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range
19/6 APTT 78 secs (17-26 secs)
19/6 Bilirubin total 53µmoles/L (<20 micromoles)
19/6 Creatinine 0.06mmol/L (0.050-0.12mmol/L)
19/6 INR 1.6 (0.9-1.3)
19/6 Liver Function Test: GGT 163 units/L (0-65 units/L)
19/6 Liver Function Test: ALP 249 units/L (30-200 units/L)
19/6 Liver Function Test: AST 244 units/L (6-40 units/L)

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
24/6 Choline salicylate topical prn
24/6 Lignocaine 2% gel topical prn
21/6 Paracetamol 150mg po 4/24
16/6 Micellized vitamin A&E mixture po 10ml daily
16/6 Omeprazole 10mg po 10mg daily
16/6 Ranitidine iv 10mg, 6/24
16/6 Spironolactone 25mg po 12.5mg daily (1/2 tab)
16/6 Vitamin D po 2,000 units daily
16/6 Vitamin K 10mg po 5mg alt. Days (1/2 tab)

Pharmacist's Notes
26/6 Liquid - filled teething ring prn
19/6 Low Protein diet
17/6 Severe liver failure - placed on transplant list
115 Which products are useful adjuncts in patients with liver failure and associated gall-
bladder disease?

A Omeprazole as these patients usually develop peptic ulcers

B Antibiotics, to prevent infections as a result of gall-bladder blockage

C Antihypertensives, as these patients will always have elevated blood pressure

D Vitamin D and calcium products, as jaundice interferes with typical vitamin D

absorption

E Fat-soluble vitamins, as these may not be adequately absorbed

116 Why does Vitamin K need to be given to this patient?

A It is always necessary when other fat-soluble vitamins are administered

B It increases the elimination of bilirubin and decreases jaundice

C It corrects the inadequate synthesis of clotting factors associated with liver

failure

D A significant amount of vitamin K is lost in patients with ascites

E Low protein diets need to be supplemented with extra vitamin K

117 Which of the following statements about this patient's therapy is CORRECT?

A Ranitidine should not be used as it is mostly metabolised by the liver

B Paracetamol should be used with caution in a patient with liver disease

C Choline salicylate applied topically is safe to use as very little salicylate is

absorbed

D Vitamin A is toxic to the liver and should not be used

E Ibuprofen suspension is a more appropriate choice for teething pain in this

patient
118 With regards to spironolactone in this patient, which of the following statements is
CORRECT?

A Spironolactone is not required, as the patient is receiving vitamin K

B Measurement of urea and electrolytes is essential to avoid excessive sodium

and potassium gain

C Spironolactone can be ceased, as the patient's serum creatinine is normal

D Paracentesis (drainage of fluid) can be avoided with the use of spironolactone

E Hyperaldosterolaemia of ascites is best managed with spironolactone

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Thomas Stevens

Address: Room 9
Age: 6 months Height: 75cm
Sex: Male Weight: 5.7kg
Allergies: Nil Known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Major Bowel Surgery with sepsis
Medical History: 1. Reflux
2. Vomiting

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range
7/7 Creatinine 0.36 mmol/L (0.05 – 0.120 mmol/L)
7/7 Urea 13.4 mmol/L (3-8 mmol/L)
6/7 Vancomycin (trough) 9 mg/L (5-10mg/L)
4/7 Gentamicin 0.7 mg/L (12 hours post dose) (<2mg/L)
4/7 Vancomycin (trough) 4 mg/L (5-10 mg/L)
23/6 Creatinine 0.03 mmol/L (0.05 – 0.120 mmol/L)
23/6 Urea 2.5 mmol/L (3-8 mmol/L)

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
6/9 Erythromycin Ethyl Succinate - 400mg/5ml 100mL 5mL tds
4/9 Erythromycin Inj 1 g 1 20mg 8/24 IV
26/8 Nystatin 100,000 units/ml 24 mL 1mL qid
26/8 Paracetamol 120mg/5mL 100mL 6H prn (90mg)
26/8 Ranitidine 150mg/10mL 300mL 15mg bd
5/7 Vancomycin 500mg/via 80mg 6H IV
3/7 Gentamicin 40mg/mL 40 mg daily IV
3/7 Gentamicin 500mg/vial 60 mg 6H IV
30/6 Paracetamol 120mg/5ml 100mL 4/24 prn (90mg)

Pharmacist's Notes
2/9 Provided information regarding erythromycin’s effect on gut motility.
29/8 Vomiting, reflux both continuing.
2/7 Febrile, grizzly, diarrhoea
119 Which of the following statements about vancomycin and gentamcin is INCORRECT?

A Both are administered intravenously

B Both can be administered concurrently

C Both are contraindicated in very young children

D Both may affect kidney function

E Blood level measurements are useful for both antibiotics

120 Which of the following statements about Thomas' therapy is INCORRECT?

A Paracetamol is effective when given either orally or rectally

B Paracetamol should be given immediately before a feed to gain maximum

benefits

C Ranitidine may be continued through the peri-operative therapy

D Erythromycin can be given orally after a short intravenous course

E Ranitidine, paracetamol and nystatin combinations are relatively safe

121 Erythromycin was added as a pro-kinetic medication. An immediate change to the

therapy is ordered. The MOST likely reason for the change in therapy is?

A The causative organism of infection was Staphylococcus aureus

B Paracetamol may mask the effectiveness of erythromycin, especially if fever

and infection were present

C Using an antibiotic and an anti-fungal combination is not advisable

D A potentially dangerous erythromycin-ranitidine interaction may arise

E The dose of erythromycin was too high

122 The MOST likely cause of changes in the results of Thomas' urea and creatinine is

A Sepsis

B Vomiting/diarrhoea

C Gentamicin

D Erythromycin

E Paracetamol

*** END OF PATIENT PROFILE ***

PATIENT PROFILE

Patient Name: Alan Jones

Address: 48 Tinderry Circuit, Harvey Bay
Age: 66 Height: 166cm
Sex: Male Weight: 87kg
Allergies: Nil known

Diagnosis
Presenting Complaint: 1. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD)
Medical History: 1. COPD
2. Hypertension
3. Epilepsy
4. Alcohol abuse; smoker

Laboratory / Diagnostic Tests

Date Test Reference Range
11/7 Sputum culture pending

Medication Record
Date Medication Quantity Sig
11/7 Candesartan 16mg 30 i mane
11/7 Fluticasone DPI 250mcg/actuation 1 ii bd
11/7 Phenytoin 100 mg 100 iii nocte
11/7 Salbutamol MDI 100mcg/actuation 2 i-ii prn
11/7 Tiopropium 18mcg caps for inhalation 30 i daily

Pharmacist's Notes
11/7 Increased shortness of breath & cough.
Increased sputum volume.
Increased use of salbutamol puffer in preceding week.
Heavy smoker
Mr Jones has been taking all the medications listed for some time
123 Mr Jones is started on prednisolone 50mg daily (for five days) and ipratropium and
salbutamol nebulised every six hours. On review of his medications, what should you
recommend as changes to his medication plan?

A Stop ipratropium, as this patient is already on tiotropium

B Stop prednisolone, as this patient is already on fluticasone

C Taper prednisolone

D Withhold tiotropium, whilst patient is on ipratropium regularly, and restart

tiotropium on discharge

E Withhold fluticasone puffer whilst on prednisolone and increase tiotropium to

every six hours

124 Mr Jones presents a few days later complaining of tremors in his hands and heart
palpitations. Which of the following medications is MOST likely to have caused this
reaction?

A Prednisolone

B Candesartan

C Ipratropium

D Tiotropium

E Salbutamol

125 Which medication is LEAST appropriate to treat either alcohol or smoking addiction in
this patient?

A Bupropion

B Nicotine inhaler

C Varenicline

D Naltrexone

E Acamprosate

*** END OF EXAM ***

Australian Pharmacy Council Ltd
Intern Written Exam
Sample 2: Answers

Question Number Correct Answer

1 C
2 D
3 B
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 D
8 A
9 B
10 B
11 A
12 E
13 B
14 B
15 A
16 C
17 E
18 C
19 C
20 E
21 C
22 C
23 B
24 B
25 C
26 D
27 C
28 B
29 C
30 B
31 D
32 E
33 D
34 A
35 D
36 D
37 D
38 D
39 B
40 D
41 E
42 C
43 C
44 C
45 D
46 E
47 B
48 E
49 C
50 B
51 D
52 D
53 E
54 B
55 C
56 D
57 A
58 A
59 D
60 A
61 A
62 B
63 B
64 E
65 A
66 A
67 E
68 A
69 A
70 E
71 A
72 D
73 C
74 D
75 E
76 A
77 E
78 D
79 E
80 E
81 B
82 C
83 A
84 B
85 D
86 E
87 B
88 E
89 D
90 C
91 E
92 E
93 B
94 B
95 B
96 A
97 D
98 C
99 A
100 A
101 C
102 C
103 D
104 B
105 B
106 D
107 C
108 B
109 D
110 E
111 D
112 B
113 E
114 C
115 E
116 C
117 B
118 E
119 C
120 B
121 E
122 C
123 D
124 E
125 A