Reviewer QE

FUNDAMENTAL OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided.
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in
the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
a. the presence of a fiscal b. the presence of a police investigator
c. writing d. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the…
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question
criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
a. inquiry b. interview
c. polygraph examination d. interrogation
4. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the

purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime.
a. search b. raid
c. investigation d. seizure
5. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same
point.
a. corroborative evidence b. circumstantial evidence
c. direct evidence d. real evidence
6. The process of bringing together in a in logical manner all evidence collected during the
investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
a. case preparation b. order maintenance
c. crime prevention d. public service
7. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the
execution of a criminal act.
a. instigation b. inducement
c. buy bust operation d. entrapment
8. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into
custody.
a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation
b. custodial investigation d. cross examination
9. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…

a. day time
b. night time
c. any day and at any time of the day or night
d. weekdays
10.A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the
accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
a. police patrol b. police intelligence
c. criminal procedure d. criminal investigation
11. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

a. initial investigation b. custodial investigation
c. secondary investigation d. follow-up investigation
12. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of…
a. interview b. surveillance
c. investigation d. interrogation
13. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe
that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are
in the place sought to be searched.
a. prima facie evidence b. probable cause
c. prejudicial question d. resipsa loquitur
14. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45
15. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the
person named in his report committed the crime.
a. corpus delicti b. sufficiency of evidence
c. stare decisis d. parespatriae
16. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by
alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
a. opportunity denial b. order maintenance
c. criminal investigation d. police intelligence
17. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
18. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential
part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
19. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of

guilt.
20. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the
personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
a. background interview b. personal interview
c. intimate interview d. pre-game interview
21. It means method of operation.

a. corpus delicti b. parenspatriae
c. stare decisis d. modus operandi
22. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
a. intent b. motive
c. opportunity d. inducement
23. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their
necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
a. information, interrogation, instrumentation
b. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
c. inquiry, observation, conclusion
d. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
24. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.

a. interview b. inquiry
c. interrogation d. instrumentation
25. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the
commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.
a. chain of command b. chain of custody
c. evidence tracking d. tracing evidence
26. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are
fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
a. physical evidence b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence d. factual evidence
27. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. physical evidence b. documentary evidence
c. tracing evidence d. testimonial evidence
28. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:

a. sympathetic approach b. emotional appeal
c. financial assistance d. friendliness
29. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers
gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
30. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
31. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling
around a central point.
32. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the information openly
and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to
remain anonymous.
a. witness b. expert witness
c. hostile witness d. informant
33. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the
crime or individuals involved in it.
a. interrogation b. rumor mongering
c. interview d. inquiry
34. An objective of criminal invstigation.

a. determine the motive b. identify criminals
c. rehabilitate criminals d. prevent crimes
35.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency b. Bureau of Drugs
c. Dangerous Drug Board d. Food and Drug Administration
36. All except one are rights of person under custodial investigation.
a) Right to remain silent
b) Right to counsel
c) Right to be informed of the nature and the cause of the accusation
d) Right to bail
37. A person who is in charged with the duty of carrying on the objectives of criminal investigation.
a) Criminal Investigator b) Fiscal c) Judge d) none of these
38. Qualities of good investigator except

a) Intelligent b) Honest
c) preconception d) Understanding of the people and the environment
39. One of the golden rule is “ do not touch or move any object” What should then the primary job of an
investigator before applying this rule?
a) Safeguard the area by issuing appropriate orders and by physically isolating it.
b) If the victim is dead, the body should be removed only after the crime scene is measured,
sketch and photographed
c) If the victim is still alive, bring him/her to the nearest hospital
d) None of the above.
40. The appearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the description of the witnesses and the
indication of the physical evidence.
a) Physical reconstruction b) Mental Reconstruction c) Reconstruction d) None of these
41. A set of views showing the relationship of the remains with the surroundings.
a) Over-all Photographs c) Photographs of the deceased
b) Photographs of Articles d) Photographs of the Environs
42. Pictures of scene of the crime with its nearest physical surroundings.
a) Sketch of Locality b) Sketch of Grounds c) Sketch of Details d) None
of these
43. The explanation of any symbol used to identify objects.

a) Title b) Measurement c) Legend d) Scale of proportion
TEST II. True or False
44. ______ Custodial investigation is conducted by law enforcement officer after a person has
been arrested or deprived of his freedom of action.
45. ______ Detention is a restraint of personal liberty or deprivation of freedom of action in any
significant manner.
46. ______ Arrested suspect can be turn over immediately to the jail right after the arrest.
47. ______ Medical certificate is not required by the jail in accepting arrested person provided
it is covered by commitment order.
48. ______ As a general rules suspect under detention can be visited by his relatives in any
day and any time of a day and night.
49. ______ Visitors of the detainee wearing same color of the detainee shall be advised to
wear other color.
50. ______ Inquest and regular filing of case have the same pertinent document to be
presented in court for filing cases.
51. ______ Affidavit of arrest is one among the requirement in inquest filing.
52. ______ The only requirements in admission and confession is waiver.
53. ______ Extra judicial confession made by a person arrest, detained or under custodial
investigation must be in writing if it is not presented by council.
54. ______ Both custodial investigation and tactical interrogation is conducted by the
investigator.
55. ______ As a general rule, arrest can be done only at day time and arresting officer must
be covered by identification.
56. ______ An arrest may be made by virtue of a warrant of arrest or warrantless arrest as
hereinafter provided.
57. ______ Warrant of arrest is issued by any judge, fiscal and independent and PAO lawyers.
58. ______ Arresting officers must make a manifestation of authority against the person to be
arrested.
59. ______ It is not the duty of the arresting officer to inform arrested person of the reason of
his arrest because person arrested is probably knew the reason why.
60. ______ Arrested person may deliver to any police station provided it is on time without
delay.
Nothing follows
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION
KEY TO CORRECTION
Crime Detection & Investigation
1. C 26. B 51. T 76.

2. D 27. C 52. F 77.
3. D 28. A 53. F 78.
4. C 29. C 54. F 79.
5. A 30. B 55. F 80.
6. A 31. D 56. T 81.
7. A 32. C 57. F 82.
8. D 33. D 58. T 83.
9. B 34. C 59. F 84.
10. C 35. B 60. F 85.
11. D 36. D 61. 86.
12. D 37. A 62. 87.
13. D 38. C 63. 88.
14. B 39. C 64. 89.
15. A 40. A 65. 90.
16. A 41. D 66. 91.
17. A 42. B 67. 92.
18. B 43. C 68. 93.
19. A 44. T 69. 94.
20. A 45. T 70. 95.
21. A 46. F 71. 96.
22. D 47. F 72. 97.
23. B 48. T 73. 98.
24. A 49. T 74. 99.
25. A 50. F 75. 100.
c. Supreme Court

a. search b. raid
point.
custody.

a. day time
b. night time
d. weekdays
accumulation,preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.

a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45


guilt.

a. intent b. motive


remain anonymous.

b) Right to counsel
d) Right to bail

of these

significant manner.
wear other color.
investigator.
arrested.
delay.
Nothing follows
KEY TO CORRECTION
1. C 26. B 51. T 76.

2. D 27. C 52. F 77.
3. D 28. A 53. F 78.
4. C 29. C 54. F 79.
5. A 30. B 55. F 80.
6. A 31. D 56. T 81.
7. A 32. C 57. F 82.
8. D 33. D 58. T 83.
9. B 34. C 59. F 84.
10. C 35. B 60. F 85.
11. D 36. D 61. 86.
12. D 37. A 62. 87.
13. D 38. C 63. 88.
14. B 39. C 64. 89.
15. A 40. A 65. 90.
16. A 41. D 66. 91.
17. A 42. B 67. 92.
18. B 43. C 68. 93.
19. A 44. T 69. 94.
20. A 45. T 70. 95.
21. A 46. F 71. 96.
22. D 47. F 72. 97.
23. B 48. T 73. 98.
24. A 49. T 74. 99.
25. A 50. F 75. 100.
CDI 2 – Final Exam
Mr X is an employee of Lucky Trading engaged in electronics and DVD business, he was attracted to one DVD which is a hot buy on
that day, he wanted to see for his own consumption the content of such DVD, he decided to conceal and steal the DVD. Mr X was
craved for that DVD because it is_____________.
Concealable
Removable
Enjoyable
Valuable
An art or process which deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect,
preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice.
Custodial investigation
Crime science
Dactyloscopy
Criminal investigation
Pedro and Juan are both employee of Goodluck Delivery, upon passing thru the x-ray machine of one balik-bayan box, they learn that it
contains electronic gadgets such as cellular phone, laptop, gaming devices, etc, they decided to steal the cellular phone to sell, they craved
for such items because it is __________.
Enjoyable
Available
Disposable
valuable
Shall assume full responsibility over the crime scene during the conduct of CSI.
Investigator-on-case
Criminal
Witness
Criminal Investigator
A person who is in-charge with the duty of carrying out the objectives of criminal investigation.
First responder
Witness
James is a juvenile offender, almost of his friends has a brand-new cellular phone. One day when James is in a restaurant, he noticed a
lady put her latest model of Samsung cellular phone on top of the table while enjoying her meal. James craved to steal that phone, so
he sneakily went from behind and able to bet the phone and he hastily went out of said restaurant. James was attracted to get by phone
because it is ___________.
Concealable
Disposable
Valuable
Removable
It is the conduct of processes, more, particularly the recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and documentation and
Interview of witnesses and the arrest of suspect/s at the crime scene.
Scene of crime
Crime scene investigation
Crime scene management
Scene of crime operation
To carry out the many responsibilities assigned to an investigator, deductive logic is utilized. In this aspect the logical progression points
to the sequence of events from generic to specific.
Job of Crime Investigators
Job of Investigator-on-Case
Job of First Responder
All of the above
They are professional thieves, in the sense that they are highly skilled; requiring unusual manual dexterity, knowledge of human
behavior and precision teamwork.
Group of organized thieves
Pickpockets
Pickpocketing
Shoplifters
Armando wanted to have more inheritance share from her grandmother than his other relatives, by means of intimidation he compel his
grandmother to sign and execute a document in favor of him. Armando is guilty of _______.
Grave Threats
Robbery with violence or Intimidation of Persons
Robbery in band
Intimidating a person
It is an entire and continuous cessation of the heart action and flow of blood in the whole vascular system.
Cessation of respiration
Death from syncope
Cessation of Heart action and circulation
Apparent death
In gathering information, Birth Certificate is considered as _________?

Public record
Private record
Modus operandi file
None of the above
The places where the criminal, victim and witness moved during the commission of the crime is a __________?
Continuing crime
Crime scene
Crime scene boundaries
All of the above
The following are the purpose of cordoning (police line) the area of the crime scene, except.
Determine the boundaries of the crime scene
Secure the crime scene
Preserved the integrity of the crime scene
Collect and preserved the evidence
Based on the results of the initial investigation conducted, the investigator shall conduct ________________ to identify and apprehend
suspect/s.
Police Investigation
Police Operation
Surveillance
All of the above
In identifying the suspect can be done through the following, except.

Eyewitness testimony
Circumstantial evidence
Association of evidence
Confession
Sworn statement of complainant/s and witnesses must be taken immediately due ______.
To meet the prescription period
To the incident is still fresh in their minds
To avoid being influenced of the opinion of other people
All of the above
The following are the main objective of a police investigator to gather all facts, except_________.
Prove by evidence the guilt of the suspect/s.
Identify the criminal
Convict the criminal
Locate and apprehend the suspect/s.
Crime is an act or omission punishable by law. It is understood that act is punishable under the Revised Penal Code while omission is
punishable by the ________.
Republic Act
Specialized Laws
Presidential Decree
Special Laws
A wound that is produced by the penetration of a sharp pointed-pointed and sharped-edge instrument like a knife, saber, dagger and
scissors.
Penetrating wound
Stab wound
Puncture wound
All of the above
These wounds are usually the result of blunt trauma or friction with other surfaces that do not break through the skin.
Abrasions
Lacerations
Contusions
Non-penetration wounds
It refers to damage to the body caused by external force

Mutilation
Wound
Injury
Inflammation
Randy and his three (3) friends plan to rob a pawnshop, on the occasion of their execution, one of the customers in the pawnshop is a
Police. However, Randy was able to shoot the police and killed prompting the group of Randy to abort their plan. Is Randy and his group
guilty of a crime of Robbery with violence or Intimidation of persons?
No, because they failed to execute the robbery.
Yes, because they executed it but was aborted only when they killed police.
No, the case must be Homicide only
Yes, because they planned to rob the pawnshop.
A public school has its store house beside the Industrial Arts building, where all the school supplies are kept. Ramon, a janitor of said
school and his four (4) friends robbed the said store house. Is Ramos and his friend guilty of the crime of _______.
Robbery
Robbery in band
Robbery in uninhabited place and by a band
Robbery in the dependencies of building
A right-angle approach of the bullet will make the wound of entrance circular shape, except when the missile is deformed or the fire is
in contact or near.
Range
Direction of fire
Deformity of the bullet that entered
Acute angular approach of the bullet
It is a criminal act of disabling, disfiguring or cutting off or making useless one of the members (leg, arms, hand, foot, eye) of another.
Serious physical injuries
Mayhem
Mutilation
Physical injuries
It is a cause of death in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced below normal working
level.
Death from coma
Somatic death
Death from Asphyxia
Death from syncope
When the accused died during the pendency of his trial for “Non-payment of just debt”, the criminal and civil liability must
_____________.
Be assumed by the heirs
Be extinguished by death
Be archive by the court
All of the above
It is a kind of death wherein the condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the
vital functions of the body on account of disease, external stimulus or other forms of influence.
Apparent death
Cellular death
Clinical death
Coma
If in consequences of the physical injuries inflicted, the injured person shall become insane, imbecile, impotent or blind the acts committed
are considered as Serious Physical Injuries.
True, because it is stated in the Revised Penal Code
False, it must be Frustrated Homicide or Murder
True, because the injuries are severe
False, because the injured can still recover from illness
One of the characteristics of puncture wound is that the opening on the skin is narrower and may become unnoticeable because of clotted
blood and elasticity of the skin.
True, because puncture wounds are cause by a sharp pointed object
False, because it can be noticeable due to signed of blood clot.
True, because it penetrates the skin and make a deep wound
False, because it cannot be determined if it is a wound
A blow on the forehead may cause contusion at the region of the eyeball because of the fracture on the papyraceous bone forming the root of
the orbit.
Contre-coup injury
Extensive injury
Locus minoris Resistencia
Coup injury
When a defense wounds are present and the incised wounds are deep, multiple and involved both accessible and non-accessible parts of the
body to the hands of the victim is called __________.
Suicidal wounds
Homicidal wounds
Accidental incised wounds
All of the above
It appears during the later stage of its formation when the blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused into the tissues of
the body.
Hypostatic lividity
Diffusion lividity
Livor Mortis
Cadaveric spasm
If in the crime scene, the cadaver tightly grasped the wounding weapon, it may indicate that the incident happened is a _____________.
Homicide
Murder
Suicide
Drowning
This is a kind of evidence that encompasses any and all objects that can establish that a crime has been committed or can provide a link between
a crime and its victim or a crime and its perpetrator
Associated evidence
Physical evidence
All of the above
It is legally submitted to a competent tribunal as a means of ascertaining the truth of any alleged matter of fact under investigation before it.
Evidence
Physical evidence
Associated evidence
It is a flow of responsibility of transporting evidence from crime scene to Crime Laboratory.

Evidence custodian
Chain of custody
Scene of Crime Operation.
It is a Protocols in Police Investigation that the Police Station in an area where the crime incident was committed, shall immediately undertake
the necessary investigation and processing of the crime scene
Territorial Unit
Jurisdictional investigation
Area of Jurisdiction
Area of Responsibility
It refers to the investigation of the dead body which is performed by a Medico Legal Officer or by a trained physician employing recognized
dissection procedure and techniques.
Non-official autopsy
Crime scene investigation stage
Official autopsy
Autopsy stage
The following are the points to be considered which may infer the position of the body at the time of death. Which is not?
Posture of the body when found
Post-mortem hypostasis
Cadaveric spasm
Entomology of the cadaver
It is a modification of the putrefaction process characterized by the dehydration of the cadaveric tissues.
Mummification
Putrefaction
Maceration
Saponification
It refers to the modification of putrefaction process which involves hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fatty issues into a yellowish greasy, rancid,
wax-like substance called adipocere.
Mummification
Putrefaction
Saponification
Maceration
Pedro wanted to burned the house of Juan his enemy, one evening when the family of Juan is already asleep, Pedro took a rag, soaked into a
gasoline and went into the combustible portion of the house, and when he is on the act of lighting his lighter to burn the rag, he was arrested
by the patrolling barangay tanod. Pedro is liable for the crime of _______.
Frustrated Arson
Attempted Arson
Consummated Arson
Arson
This robbery’s style is based on the moment of surprise and does not require specific planning.
Robbery by ambush
Robbery by raid
Robbery by band
None of the above
It refers to the all-interior courts, corrals, water houses, granaries, barns, coach-houses, stables or other departments or enclosed places
contiguous to the building or edifice, having an interior entrance connected therewith, and which form part of the whole.
Inhabited house/building
Uninhabited house
Dependencies of the house
Private building
A person who enters or remains on the premises of another without effective consent of the owner for the purpose of committing a felony or
theft.
Brigandage
Burglary
Robbers
Opportunistic or amateur robbers.
They are robbers who do not plan their robberies, target low risk victims, do not typically use firearms and work independently.
Unarmed robbers
Street robbers
Opportunistic or amateur robbers
Substance-habituated robbers
Primo, while having a widow shopping inside the mall, he saw an imported chocolate and he cannot resist his urges to steal, when he has the
opportunity, he took and carted away said chocolate for his pleasure gratification. Primo is a _______.
Opportunistic or amateur robber
Kleptomania
Shoplifter
Thieve
The most frequently cited emotional problem associated with shoplifting is ________.
Economic problem
Kleptomania
Depression
Trill-seeking
It refers to theft of a few pieces or a small quantity of a relatively large shipment.
Theft
Robbery
Pilferage
Larceny
It is an act of stealing wallets, passports and sometimes other valuables from people’s clothing and baags as they walk into or in a public
place.
Snatching
Pickpocketing
Dipping
lifting
Final Examination PE4
Total points85/100
100 items Multiple Choice. Please choose the BEST answer.
The respondent's email ([email protected]) was recorded on submission of this form.
IPSC medium course must not require more than *

1/1
A. 16 rounds
B. 9 rounds
C. 30 rounds
D. 24 rounds
50 caliber machine gun is a *

1/1
a. small arms
b. lightweight weapon
c. Class A lightweight weapon
d. Class B lightweight weapon
e. non-of the above
equivalent to hammer down in shotgun *

0/1
a. Open the action
b. Close the action
c. Fire the action
d. shoulder
Safety is paramount, designed and run with due consideration to safety *

1/1
A. IPSC
B. PSMOC
C. IDPA
D. NRA
ammunition carrying device except *

1/1
a. Belts
b. Shoulder Straps
c. Saddles
d. bar Strippers
in feeding and extraction jams we must strike the slide forward *

1/1
A. true
B. false
C. cannot be determined
D. undecided
The muzzle of a gun limit (danger zone) *
0/1
a. 20 deg
b. 30 deg
c. 40 deg
d. 45 deg
e. 180 deg
There are 3 common arm style *

1/1
a. true
b. false
c. true and false
d. non-of the above
e. all of the above
IPSC being freestyle does not require mandatory reloads *

1/1
A. true
B. false
C. cannot be decided
D. undetermined
in history pistol shooting each contestant fires *

1/1
A. 20 rounds in a typical match
B. 30 rounds in a typical match
C. 40 rounds in a typical match
D. 50 rounds in a typical match
Allows citizen to own and possess 5 registered firearms *

1/1
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
To register a gun club there must be at least __ license citizen members *

0/1
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
d. 18
e. 25
A pistol, revolver and rifles are considered *

1/1
a. lightweight weapon
b. Class B Lightweight weapon
d. small arms
e. both b and c

1/1
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
is the relationship of the rear sight, front sight and target as seen by the shooter *
1/1
a. sight picture
b. sight alignment
c. rear sight
d. front sight
e. eyesight
Once granted an LTOPF you are now *

0/1
a. Licensed sports shooter
b. LTOPF holder
c. Gun collector
d. Licensed Citizen
e. Small arms to lightweight weapon certified
A license citizen can only have 100 rounds of ammo per firearm *
1/1
a. True
b. False
c. Un decided
d. Unknown
e. Cannot be determined
The sport of small-arms target shooting dates from the invention of the pistol and the rifle in *
0/1
A. 14th century
B. 16th century
C. 18th century
D. 20th century
five (5) elements of marksmanship, except *

1/1
a. grip
b. breath control
c. jerking
d. sight alignment
e. stance
A rifle capable of shooting semi automatically is *

0/1
a. small arms
e. non-of the above
IDPA firearms a re grouped into the following divisions except *

1/1
A. open
B. custom defensive pistol
C. stock service pistol
D. enhanced service revolver
The following PNP units may establish a gun free zone, except *
1/1
a. Police Regional Office
b. Police Provincial Office
c. Provincial Mobile Force Company
d. City Police Office
e. non-of the above
8. a folding shotgun made in south africa *

0/1
a. striker shotgun
b. escort shotgun
c. sweeper
d. none of the above
IPSC long course must not require more than *

1/1
A. 16 rounds
B. 32 rounds
C. 9 rounds
D. 24 rounds
NRA means *
1/1
A. National rifle association of Argentina
B. National rifle association of America
C. National Range of Argentina
D. National Range of America
A mortar is a *
1/1
a. small arms
e. non-of the above
IPSC short course must not require more than *

0/1
A. 9 rounds
B. 32 rounds
C. 9 rounds
D. 24 rounds
accessories of a shotgun except; *

1/1
a. silencer
b. Lights
c. Flash Hiders
d. Breaching Muzzles
Before you can buy and own a gun you must first secure *
1/1
a. Firearms registration card
b. LTOPF
c. Firearms purchase receipt
d. Ammunitions
e. Small arms to lightweight weapon certificate
the grip on the gun must be 40% on the support hand and 60% on the shooting hand *
0/1
A. true
B. false
D. undecided

1/1
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
The following are accessories of firearms except *

1/1
a. laser scope
b. cylinder
c. sound suppressor
d. telescopic sight
e. none of the above
IPSC matches are__ competitors must be permitted to solve challenge presented *

1/1
A. diverse
B. balance
C. freestyle
D. none of the above
A rifle with full automatic bust of fire is *

1/1
a. small arms
e. non-of the above
a small telescope mounted on the barrel, which provides a magnified view of the target. *
1/1
A. metallic sights
B. optical sights
C. sniper scope
D. red dot
Senior citizens discount on LTOPF payment *

0/1
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 30%
e. 50%
shooting sport that simulates self-defense scenarios. *

1/1
A. IPSC
B. PSMOC
C. IDPA
D. NRA
IDPA shooter classification except *

1/1
A. master
B. grand master
C. sharpshooter
D. marksman
The following are major parts of a firearm except *

1/1
a. barrel
b. slide
c. frame
d. hammer
e. cylinder
PSMOC Minimum distance for paper targets *

1/1
A. 10 meters
B. 9 meters
C. 2 meters
D. 5 meters
IPSC matches must be designed, constructed and conducted with due consideration to. *
1/1
A. speed
B. power
C. accuracy
D. safety
in a special course of fire, a standard exercise must not require more than *
1/1
A. 16 rounds
B. 32 rounds
C. 9 rounds
D. 24 rounds
Only small arms may be registered by a qualified license citizen *

1/1
a. True
b. False
c. Un decided
d. Unknown
is a person who is skilled in precision shooting using projectile weapons to shoot at high-value
targets at longer-than-usual ranges. *
1/1
A. Sharpshooter
B. Novice
C. Marksman
D. Expert
a type of shotgun ammo used to open doors *

1/1
a. buck shot
b. breaching round
c. birdshot
d. launching blanks
Trigger finger should never be placed inside trigger guard unless shooter is ready to fire. *
1/1
a. true
b. false
c. true and false
d. non-of the above
e. all of the above
Allows citizen to own and possess more than 15 registered firearms *

0/1
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
highest classification for PSMOC shooter *

1/1
A. expert
B. grand master
C. master
D. class A
There are ___ basic cardinal rules of gun safety *

1/1
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 6
e. non-of the above
is the relationship of the rear sight and front sight as seen by the shooter *
1/1
a. sight picture
b. sight alignment
c. rear sight
d. front sight
e. eyesight
muscular tension anticipating recoil shown by head movement and closing of the eyes *
1/1
a. flinching
b. trigger control
c. sight picture
d. jerking
e. non-of the above
One of the oldest firing weapons, early muzzle loading weapons were often used as a shotgun. *
1/1
a. shotgun
b. blunderbuss
c. semi-automatic rifle
d. pump action shotgun
classifier match for PSMOC *

1/1
A. level 1
B. level 2
C. level 3
D. fun shoots
a kind of shotgun that can fire continuously in one charging. *

1/1
a. pump action shotgun
b. semi-automatic shotgun
c. pistol grip shotgun
d. folding shotgun
Improper sight alignments, except *

1/1
a. shooting high
b. bullseye
c. shooting left
d. shooting right
e. shooting low
in standing position shooter must be facing away at an angle of 45 degrees to line of fire *
1/1
A. true
B. false
D. undecided
the latin word for Accuracy, Power and Speed *

1/1
A. Dilencia, Visa, Celeritate
B. Diligentia, Vis, Celeritas
C. DVC
D. Diligentia, Via, Celery
are sights that are considered stock *

1/1
A. metallic sights
B. Laser sights
C. optical sights
D. red dot scope
are stock shotgun except *

1/1
a. Standard
b. Pistol Grip
c. Folding
d. remington 820
Refers to the comprehensive firearms and ammunition act *

1/1
a. RA 9165
b. RA 10591
c. RA 10916
d. RA 7610
e. both a and b
IDPA means *
1/1
A. International Defensive Piston Assn
B. International Defensive Practical Assn
C. International Defensive Pistol Assn
D. International Defense Pistol Assn
the main goal of an IDPA matches is to *

1/1
A. test competitors shooting skills
B. competition
C. test the skill and ability
D. test the equipment and gamesmanship
a classification for beginners *

1/1
A. tyros
B. novice
C. class D
D. both a and b
must not require more than 9 rounds to complete and must require 1 mandatory reload *
1/1
A. classifiers
B. standard exercises
C. supplementary course of fire
D. shoot off
a cal .45 pistol belongs to this division *

1/1
A. enhanced service pistol division
B. custom defensive pistol division
C. stock service revolver
D. enhanced service revolver
During early years rifle matches are divided into these events *
1/1
A. high bore and small power
B. pistol and revolver
C. small bore and high power
D. pistol and rifle
Sight picture is the relationship between rear sight, front sight and target *
1/1
a. true
b. false
c. true and false
d. non-of the above
e. all of the above
The shotgun was such a devastating weapon in the trenches. *

1/1
a. true
b. false
c. cannot be determined
d. the statement is vague
Match Officer is for *

1/1
A. IPSC
B. PSMOC
C. IDPA
D. NRAAA
Sight alignment is the relationship between rear and front sights as seen by shooter *
1/1
a. true
b. false
c. true and false
d. non-of the above
e. all of the above
Provides the shooter a maximum control of firearm to maintain natural sight alignment *
1/1
a. index finger
b. grip
c. thumb
d. front sight
e. rear sight
type of shotgun used by the US army *

0/1
a. blunderbuss
b. joint service combat shotgun (JSCS)
c. lightweight shotgun system (LSS)
d. Winchester model 12
are comparatively simple mechanical guides affixed to the barrel that are designed to facilitate
the proper aiming of a rifle *
1/1
A. metallic sights
B. optical sights
C. sniper scope
D. red dot
is the skillful art of shooting and hitting the target *

1/1
a. marksman
b. sharpshooter
c. marksmanship
d. trap shooting
e. archery
also means a beginner in target shooting *

1/1
A. Range officer
B. Marksmen
C. Tyros
D. Safety officer

0/1
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
Range Officer is for *

1/1
A. IPSC
B. PSMOC
C. IDPA
D. NRAAA
basic safety rules and the universal laws of gun safety has one objective in common *
1/1
A. true
B. false
D. undecided
is the equivalent elements of IPSC shooting *

1/1
A. balance, Power and Speed
B. accuracy, balance and Speed
C. accuracy, Power and Speed
D. accurate, Powerful and Steadfast
IDPA was founded in the year *

1/1
A. 1998
B. 1995
C. 1996
D. 1982
attempting to make pistol fire in certain movement by rapidly applying pressure on trigger *
1/1
a. flinching
b. trigger control
c. sight picture
d. jerking
e. non-of the above
These are kinds of small arms except *

1/1
a. shotgun
b. sub-machine gun
c. rifle
d. pistol
e. revolver
Based on history it is a gun made to load a number of projectiles in the large mouth muzzle. *
1/1
a. shotgun
b. blunderbuss
c. semi-automatic rifle
d. pump action shotgun
is the black circular thing at the center of black and white concentric rings *
1/1
A. Square of cardboard
B. Concentric rings
C. Target paper
D. Bulls eye
a folding shotgun made in USA *

0/1
a. striker shotgun
b. protecta shotgun
c. sweeper
d. none of the above
PSMOC Minimum distance for metal targets *

1/1
A. 10 meters
B. 9 meters
C. 2 meters
D. 5 meters
Unlawful disposition/selling of government owned firearm by law enforcer is penalized *

1/1
a. 10 yrs 1 day to 12 yrs imprisonment
b. 12 yrs 1 day to 15 yrs imprisonment
c. 12 yrs 1 day to 20 yrs imprisonment
d. 10 yrs 1 day to 20 yrs imprisonment
e. 20 yrs 1 day to 40 yrs imprisonment
Also means a beginner in shooting marksmanship *

1/1
A. Marksman
B. Novice
C. Expert
D. Master
Military reservist discount on LTOPF payment *

1/1
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20$
d. 30%
e. 50%
are sights that are considered enhanced *

1/1
A. metallic sights
B. Laser sights
C. optical sights
D. red dot scope
A license sports shooter can have more than 1500 rounds of ammo *
1/1
a. True
b. False
c. Un decided
d. Unknown
Safety Officer is for *

1/1
A. IPSC
B. PSMOC
C. IDPA
D. NRAAA
they played a strategic role as snipers during the American revolution and civil war *
0/1
A. marksmen
B. grand masters
C. sharpshooters
D. experts
in clearing stovepipe jam we must strike the cartridge shell rearward

1/1
A. true
B. false
D. undecided
Practice firing without an ammunition. *

1/1
a. practice firing
b. dry firing
c. zeroing
d. dud bullets
e. all of the above
designed primarily to test a competitors shooting skills *

1/1
A. IPSC
B. PSMOC
C. IDPA
D. NRA
American revolution *
1/1
A.1775-1783
B. 1600-1761
C. 1861-1865
D. 1761-1765
Americacan civil war *

1/1
A.1775-1783
B. 1600-1761
C. 1861-1865
D. 1761-1765
are shooting positions except *

1/1
A. Prone
B. sitting
C. kneeling
D. stealing
a type of speed loading a shotgun.

1/1
a. emergency reload
b. administrative load
c. combat load
d. hasty load
This form was created inside of Naga College Foundation, Inc..
Forms
NAGA COLLEGE FOUNDATION
CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION DEPARMENT
M.T. Villanueva Avenue, Naga City
GEC - ETHICS FINALS
Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED AND GOODLUCK!
1. It refers to the matters such as the good thing that we should pursue and the bad thing that we
should avoid.
a. Aesthetics c. Technique
b. Philosophy d. Ethics
2. It refers to a behavior that is a self-serving desire, even if one does not acknowledge it or is even
conscious of it.
a. Subjectivism c. Psychological Egoism
b. Ethical Egoism d. Senses of Self
3. It comes from the greek word aesthesis meaning sense or feeling. It concerns itself with the value
of beauty and ethics, which concerns itself with the value of human actions.
a. Aesthetics c. Asthetics
b. Aisthethics d. Asthesis
4. It has an idea that one is obliged to obey his creator.

a. Natural Law Theory c. Positive Law
b. Divine Command Theory d. Divine Theory
5. Concerned with right and wrong actions, but those which might be considered not quite grave
enough to belong to a discussion on ethics
a. Etiquette c. Technique
b. Philosophy d. Aesthetics
6. Refers to the different rules and regulations that are posited or put forward by an authority figure
that requires our compliance
7. Refers to the proper (right way) of doing things

8. One is torn between choosing one of two goods or choosing between the lesser of two evils
a. Moral Decision c. Moral Issue
b. Moral Dilemma d. Moral Judgment
9. When a person is an observer who makes an assessment on the actions or behavior of someone,
she/he is a making a _______________.
10. When one is placed in a situation and confronted by the choice of what act to perform
11. A situation that calls for moral valuation.

12. Study of ethics that reports how people, particularly groups, make their moral valuations without
making any judgment either for or against these valuations.
a. Normative Study c. Philosophical Study
b. Descriptive Study d. None of these
13. It prescribes that we should make our end, our own interests as the single overriding concern.
14. According to him, “the unexamined life is not worth living for man.”
a. Socrates c. Aristotle
b. Plato d. Kant
15. It is a major branch of philosophy which focuses on the study of value or quality. It covers the
analysis and employment of concepts such as good, evil, right, wrong, and responsibility.
a. Ethics c. Ethics and Values
b. Morality d. Moral Standards
16. Are norms that individuals or groups have about the kind of actions believed to be morally right or
wrong, as well as the values placed on what we believed to be morally good or morally bad?
A. Ethics B. Morality C. Moral Standards D. Value
17. A standards by which we judge manners to be good or bad; normally dictated by a socio-economic
elite.
A. Moral Standards B. Etiquette C. Legal D. Aesthetics
18. A major areas in the study of ethics that concerning what a person is obligated (or permitted) to do
in a specific situation or a particular domain of action.
A. Normative Ethics B. Applied Ethics C. Meta-Ethics D. All of
these
19. A major areas in the study of ethics that concerning the theoretical meaning and reference of moral
propositions, and how their truth values (if any) can be determined.
these
20. A situations where persons, who are called “moral agents” in which there is a choice to be made
between two options, neither of which resolves the situation in an ethically acceptable fashion. It
involves human actions which have moral implications
A. Moral Dilemmas B. Ethical Dilemmas C. Dilemma D. both a and b
21. Rules by which we make decisions about right and wrong, should and shouldn't, good and bad.
They also tell us which are more or less important.
A. Value B, Ethics C. Moral D. Habit
22. It a general rules about actions or behaviors.

A. Value B. Norms C. Moral D. Moral Standards
23. It refers to that quality of goodness or badness in a human act. It is not an imagined quality merely
supposed to be found in human acts.
A. Value B. Norms C. Morality D. Moral Standards
24. A major areas in the study of ethics that concerning the practical means of determining a moral
course of action.
A. Normative Ethics B. Applied Ethics C. Meta-Ethics D. Casuists
25. Ethics is also referred to as what?

A. Culture B. A way of life C. Moral Philosophy D. None of these
Test II. Identification. Identify what is being asked. Choose your answer from the box below and
write it at the back of the answer sheet provided. Answers may be repeated twice or even thrice.
Moral Issue Moral Decision
Etiquette Moral Judgment
Moral Dilemma
1. Always say thank you when someone does a kindness to you. (Etiquette)
2. You’re walking through a store and see a wallet lying on the floor. Are you going to claim it or
turn it over to a store security? (Moral Issue)
3. Excuse yourself if you burp, sneeze, cough or fart. Best excuse yourself and step away.
(Etiquette)
4. Fanny and her classmates are assigned by their teacher to buy Christmas Party Gifts. Her
classmates keep all complimentary gift and ask Fanny not to tell the teacher. Fanny eventually
agreed. (Moral Decision)
5. Identify yourself when making a phone call to someone not a close friend or relative.
(Etiquette)
6. You are driving a car in the fog and you lost your brake. Suddenly there are 5 people standing
in your lane. There is one person standing in the other lane. Should you swerve and hit the one
person. (Moral Dilemma)
7. Should I get a job or rob a people? (Moral Issue)
8. She is a bad woman for having two kids with two father. (Moral Judgment)
9. Sitting and acting like a fine lady while having a dinner in a fine dining restaurant. (Etiquette)
10. He is a bad student for cheating in an exam. (Moral Judgment)
1. A doctor of Roman Catholic Church, Dominican friar who created Summa Theologiae
a. Thomas Aquinas c. Jeremy Bentham
b. Pantaleon Alvarez d. John Stuart Mill
2. When was the OPLAN Exodus happened?
a. January 25, 2015 c. May 27, 2018
b. October 13, 2017 d. February 15, 1748
3. It refers to the rules of law to be communicated to the people involved in order to enforce them
and to better ensure compliance
a. Promulgation c. Eternal Law
b. Law d. Divine Law
4. He wrote about the greatest happiness principle of ethics
a. Zulkifli bun Hir c. Jeremy Bentham
b. Jeremy Mill d. John Stuart Mill
5. A Malaysian terrorist and bomb-maker who had a $5 million bounty on his head and he is the
one of the subject of the warrant of arrest.
a. Zulkifli bun Hir c. Zulkifli bin Hir
b. Zulkifli ben Her d. Merwen
6. ____________ refers to all instances wherein human beings construct and enforce law in their
communities
a. Divine Law c. Natural Law
b. Human Law d. Eternal Law
7. John Stuart Mill was born in ____________.
a. London c. London, England
b. England d. Pentonville, London
8. Also known as Anti-wire tapping law
a. RA 4201 c. RA 9171
b. RA 9372 d. RA 4200
9. Is an ethical theory that determines right from wrong by focusing on outcomes. It is a form of
consequentialism.
a. Utility c. Natural Law
b. Utilitarianism d. Consequentialism
10. One of the four notions of causes, which refers that all creations takes on a particular shape or
form
a. Material cause c. Efficient cause
b. Formal cause d. Final cause
11. It refers to the chance it has of being followed by sensations of same kind
a. Fecundity c. Felicific Calculus
b. Purity d. Extent
12. This refers to the usefulness of the consequences of one’s action and behavior.
13. Jeremy Bentham was born on ____________.
a. February 14, 2020 c. February 15, 1848
b. February 15, 1748 d. February 15, 1948
14. One of the four notions of causes, which says that there is something which brings about the
presence of another being.
15. What is the two sovereign masters of utilitarianism
a. Pain and Pleasure c. Happy and sad
b. Pain and Happiness d. Pain and Pressure
16. Jeremy Bentham was born in ____________.
17. Framework for evaluating pleasure and pain
b. Purity d. Extent
18. Who is the speaker of the house of representative, proposing a bill which would amend the
country’s family code, allowing the legalization of same sex unions
19. It refers to what is good for the community as well as our own good
a. Natural Law c. Law
b. Uncommon Good d. Common Good
20. The divine wisdom that directs each being toward its proper end can be called the ________.
21. It is an ordinance of reason for the common good, promulgated by the one who is in charge of
the community.
a. Natural Law c. Eternal Law
22. It is the ‘telos’, this is what should happen if we do the right things.
a. Efficient Cause c. Purpose
b. Final Cause d. Material Cause
23. The class of normative ethical theories holding that the consequences of one's conduct are the
ultimate basis for any judgment about the rightness or wrongness of that conduct.
24. It refers to the motivation of our actions as guided by our avoidance of pain and our desire for
pleasure. It is like saying that in our everyday actions, we do what is pleasurable and we do not
do what is painful.
a. Principle c. Consequentialism
b. Utility d. Principle of Utility
25. It is one of the variables or circumstances that Jeremy Bentham formulated the Felicific
Calculus. It means how soon will the pleasure occur?
a. Propinquity/Remoteness c. Duration
b. Fecundity d. Intensity .
Test II. True or False. Write the whole word TRUE, if the statement is correct and if it is FALSE
correct the underlined word. Write your answers at the BACK of your answer sheets.
26. An excessive quantity of what is otherwise pleasurable might result in happiness. PAIN
27. In Plato’s work, The Republic, it is often supposed that Plato is trying to envision the ideal
society. TRUE
28. The Principle of Greatest Happiness refers to the motivation of our actions as guided by our
avoidance of pain and desire for pleasure. UTILITY
29. Utilitarianism is intended with the best consequence for the highest number of people. TRUE
30. Natural Laws are descriptive; as they tell us how we ought to behave. TRUE
31. Reason is the ultimate GOAL of the person’s actions. TO DO GOOD
32. A bad action is one in which the natural cause or purpose is achieved. NOT ACHIEVE
33. In human beings, unnatural inclination to engage in the sexual act and to reproduce.
NATURAL
34. There are four parts to this voluminous work of Aquina’s Summa Theologiae. THREE
35. For Aristotle the outer principle of human nature is reason. INNER PRINCIPLE
Test III. Identification. Write N if the statement is natural, write UN if the statement is unnatural and
UL if the statement describes utilitarianism.
36. Marijuana can cure some diseases, therefore let us all use marijuana. UN
37. You are a doctor at a busy hospital. Every day you must turn a sick patient away because you
don’t have enough beds to accommodate them. UL
38. Jovie used to have drinking spree with her friends every night because he see it likeness to
others. UN
39. Ana was drowning. She is a good woman with 4 kids, neighbors love her, and she helps lots of
people. UL
40. Janine, a 25 year old woman, is acting like a lady. N
Test III. Essay/Enumeration/Identification: Write at the back portion of your answer sheet.
41- 43. Give the three principles that serve as the basic axioms of utilitarianism?
1. Pleasure or Happiness Is the Only Thing That Truly Has Intrinsic Value.
2. Actions Are Right Insofar as They Promote Happiness, Wrong Insofar as They Produce
Unhappiness.
3. Everyone's Happiness Counts Equally.
44. This philosophy of utilitarianism took for its "fundamental axiom" that.
“it is the greatest happiness of the greatest number that is the measure of right and wrong".
45. Humans are unique and we are __________ with other beings and other animals.
Common
46 – 50. What are the natural inclinations of human nature? Explain each.
1. Self-preservation
- natural inclination to take care of one’s health or not to kill or put one’s self in danger.
2. Just dealing with others
- Treat others with the same respect that we accord ourselves.
3. Propagation of human species
- The reproductive organ is designed to reproduce and propagate human species.
4. Knowledge
- Natural inclination to learn
1. The maxim or personal rule that I live by were adopted by everyone of their own maxim.
a. Universalizable c. Sentient Organism
b. Rational Will d. Virtue
2. He was a German enlightenment philosopher who wrote one of the most important works on
moral philosophy, the Groundwork Towards a Metaphysics of Moral.
a. Immanuel Kant c. Reggie Cabututan
b. Aristotle d. Sec. Bro Armin Luistro
3. It means an organism has the ability to perceive and navigate its external environment.
4. Who is the DepEd secretary who launch the implementing guidelines of the children’s
television act of 1997?
5. The capacity to act according to principles that are determine by ourselves.
6. He was born in Macedonia and studied philosophy under Plato in Athens.
7. It is the excellent way of doing things. Also known as Arete in Greeks.
8. He was the brightest among Plato’s student and also known to be the tutor of Alexander the
Great.
9. It will give us set or instructions on how to make a list of duties or moral commands.
a. Formal Moral Theory c. Substantive Moral Theory
b. Philosophical Wisdom d. Practical Wisdom
10. Who was the taxi driver in Baguio who returned a suit case who his Australian passenger.
11. Heteronomy comes from the Greek word _________ means other.
a. Heteros c. Mesotes
b. Deon d. Telos
12. It refers to the knowledge of determining the appropriate action in a given situation.
13. Greek word for purpose or aim for which all acts seek to achieve.
b. Deon d. Telos
14. The first comprehensive and programmatic study of virtue ethics.
a. Nicomachean Ethics c. Maxim
b. Deontology d. Virtue
15. The middle, intermediate or ______ for the greeks that is aimed at by a morally virtuous
person.
b. Deon d. Telos
16. A moral theory that evaluates action that are done because of duty.
b. Deontology d. Virtue Ethics
17. It is freely given as an unrequired gift for one’s service or effort.
a. Agency c. Heteronomy
b. Autonomy d. Reward
18. Deontology comes from the Greek word ______ which means being necessary.
b. Deon d. Telos
19. It is the ability of a person to act based on her intentions and mental states.
20. It means other law or a simple legislation and imposition of law by an eternal authority.
21. It provides the “form” of a moral theory and to supply a procedure and the criteria for
determining one’s own, the rules and moral commands.
22. It means self-law or no interference or control from others.
23. Consist of a “rule” that we live by in our day to day-to-day basis or the Standard Operating
Procedure (SOP).
24. Is an excellence in knowing the right conduct in carrying out a particular act.
25. Older individuals would agree that the highest purpose and the ultimate good of man is his
happiness or for the Greeks they called it ___________.
a. Eudaimonia c. Arete
b. Telos d. Mesotes
27. Refers to the faculty to intervene in the world, to act in a manner that is consistent with our
reason.
28. ___________ is the knowledge of the general principles that constitute reality.
29. It is the ethical framework that is concerned with understanding the good as a matter of
developing the virtuous character of a person.
30. It identifies the particular duties in a straight forward manner that the adherents of the theory
must follow.
NAGA COLLEGE FOUNDATION, INC. Criminology 3
M.T. Villanueva Ave., Naga City Human Behavior & Victimology
College of Criminal Justice Education Final Examination
Test I. Multiple Choice. Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter
of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Refers to strategies that are pursued to prevent the development of illegal activities, the
anticipation, recognition, appraisal of a crime risk, and the initiation of some action to
remove or reduce it.
a. Crime prevention c. Victimization prevention
b. Crime control d. Crime resistance
2. According to the data, who has the greater risk of victimization when it comes to age?
a. Older person c. Adult individuals
b. Delinquent person d. Young people
3. Stresses the importance of creating well-protected defensible space by target hardening.
a. Avoidance strategies c. CPTED
b. Risk management tactics d. Crime control
4. Used to describe individual behavior that conforms to the most common behavior in society
(known as conformity).
a. Normal behavior c. Criminal psychology
b. Abnormal behavior d. Human behavior
5. Means making the offender’s task more difficult through advance planning.
6. Explain abnormality in terms of the thought processes of the patient.
a. Biological approach c. Psychodynamic approach
b. Cognitive approach d. Humanistic approach
7. Defined as an undesirable consequence caused by some external forces or by some
individual, group or organization.
a. Victimization c. Victimologist
b. Victimology d. Victim
8. It is the voluntary or involuntary attitude a person adopts in order to fit society’s idea of
right or wrong.
a. Criminal behavior c. Criminal psychology
9. The process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.
a. Heredity c. Environment
b. Learning d. Human behavior
10. Refers to any person, group, or entity who has suffered injury or loss due to illegal activity
(man-made).
a. Crime Victim c. Victimologist
11. Who is the most neglected subject in the study of crime?
a. Criminal c. Police
b. Criminal Justice System d. Victim
12. An unconscious psychological mechanism that reduces anxiety arising from unacceptable or
potentially harmful stimuli.
a. Human behavior c. Criminal psychology
b. Controlling mechanism d. Defense mechanism
13. Behavior that is statistically unusual, considered mal adaptive, and self-defeating to the
person who displays it.
14. It involves cognitive adaptation that enhances the human being’s abilities to cope with
changes in the environment and to manipulate the environment in ways which improve the
chances for survival.
a. Inherited behavior c. Criminal psychology
b. Learned behavior d. Human behavior
15. Refers to financial loss and damage suffered by a person like loss of property, business
establishment and the like.
a. Physical harm c. Economic loss
b. Psychological injury d. Dysfunction
16. Means any non-accidental trauma, injury, or condition, including inadequate nourishment
that, if left unattended, could result in death, disfigurement, illness, or temporary or
permanent disability of any part or function of the body.
17. A mental health disorder that impacts the way you think and feel about yourself and others,
causing problems functioning in everyday life.
a. Criminal behavior c. Anti-social personality disorder
b. Abnormal behavior d. Borderline personality disorder
18. Defined as a social scientist who deals with the study of the causes of victimization and the
programs of preventing victimization.
19. Refers to two or more habitual behavior which occurs in one situation.
a. Habitual c. Instinctive
b. Symbolic d. Complex
20. In this approach, the malfunctioning of the person’s body is responsible for abnormal
behavior.
a. Biological factors c. Sociological factors
b. Psychological factors d. Biopsychosocial
21. Since it has gained popularity as much as criminology, the focus of crime prevention
strategies is now centered on…
b. Criminals d. Police education
22. Measures that are taken in response to acts that have already been committed.
23. Says that abnormality occurs when people are not able to be their authentic selves.
24. Provide a framework for thinking about human growth, development, and learning.
a. Psychological theories c. Behavioral theories
b. Cognitive theories d. Developmental theories
25. Individuals are more likely than average to be moody and to experience such feelings as
anxiety, worry, guilt, depressed mood, and loneliness.
a. Neuroticism c. Openness to experience
b. Introversion d. Suicide
26. Considered a mental harm, suffering, damage, impairment, or dysfunction caused to a
person as a direct result of some action or failure to act by some individual.
27. A functional nervous or emotional disorder marked by severe anxiety, depression, and the
like, without any apparent physical origin.
a. Neurosis c. Paranoia
b. Psychosis d. Catatonia
28. Refers to human conduct which is unlearned and inherent.
29. Refers to behavior that is driven by external rewards such as money, fame, grades, and
praise.
a. Human behavior c. Extrinsic motivation
b. Intrinsic motivation d. Human motivation
30. This includes cultural bias, poverty and low socioeconomic conditions, as well as gender.
31. A term used to describe a number of psychotic disorders characterized by serious emotional
disturbances, withdrawal, lack of or inappropriate emotional responses, hallucinations and
delusions.
a. Personality disorder c. Schizophrenia
32. Views abnormality as a result of conflict between unconscious urges and conscious desires.
33. Behavioral response or reflex exhibited by people due to their genetic endowment or the
process of natural selection.
34. Conflict is sometimes expressed in the partial or complete loss of certain body functions
such as loss of vision, hearing or arm or leg movement.
a. Phobia c. Obsessive-compulsive pattern
b. Conversion neurosis d. Dissociative neurosis
35. Consists of the conditions and factors that surround and influence an individual.
36. This refers to activities that would discourage criminals from attacking particular targets
such as homes, warehouses, stores, cars or persons.
37. Defined as the quality of being outgoing and directing attention to things other than
yourself.
a. Introversion c. Extroversion
b. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
38. This includes emotional turmoil, inappropriate learning, distorted thoughts, and inadequate
relationships as determinants of abnormal behavior.
39. Specific form of neurotic disturbance which includes hysterical amnesia, the sleep walking
trance, and multiple personality.
40. Based on the idea that all behaviors are acquired through conditioning.
a. Behavior conditioning c. Behavioral theories
41. Individual suffers physical complaints of varying degree as headache, nausea, vomiting,
shortness of breath, palpitation, menstrual dysfunction, insomnia.
a. Depressive neurosis c. Neurosis
b. Anxiety neurosis d. Paranoid schizophrenia
42. Involves five facets, or dimensions, including active imagination (fantasy), aesthetic
sensitivity, attentiveness to inner feelings, preference for variety, and intellectual curiosity.
43. These are actions taken by people to limit their personal exposure to dangerous persons
and frightening situations.
44. A rare condition in which the patient maintains a rigid posture or, more frequently, as
apparently purposeless, excited movements that have a repetitive similarity about them.
45. In this condition it has been observed that there are excessive concern with conformity,
inability to relax and tolerate ambiguity, rigid, may be intelligent but his character explains
his undoing.
a. Hysterical c. Paranoid
b. Passive-aggressive d. Compulsive
46. A reaction which excludes from conscious awareness undesirable thought, feeling or
memory causing pain.
a. Fantasy c. Nomadism
b. Regression d. Repression
47. Defined as the process of enlarging people’s freedoms and opportunities and improving
their well-being.
a. Human development c. Human rights
b. Abnormal behavior d. Human being
48. Focus on internal states, such as motivation, problem-solving, decision-making, thinking,
and attention.
49. Defined as a discipline/study which deals with the nature, causes of victimization, as well as
the programs for aiding and preventing victimization.
50. People with this type of personality disorder behave in ways that appear inept.
51. A type of mental disorder in which you have a rigid and unhealthy pattern of thinking,
functioning and behaving.
a. Personality disorder c. Compulsive personality disorder
b. Neurosis d. Psychosis
52. An aggressive reaction where one tries to blame or hold responsible others to hide and
conceal and explain his failures.
a. Displacement c. Free-floating anger
b. Scapegoating d. Suicide
53. Reduction of victimization risks and minimizes the chance of being harmed when exposure
is unavoidable.
54. This proposes that abnormal behavior might result from an interaction of biological,
psychological, and sociocultural factors.
b. Psychological factors d. Interactionist approach
55. Specific form of neurotic disturbance marked by an irrational or very powerful fear and
dislike of something.
56. Focuses on the medical issues that underline the mental illness.
57. Looks at the pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behavior that make a person unique.
a. Humanistic theories c. Personality theories
b. Social psychology theories d. Developmental theories
58. Have the most profound impact in nurturing a child and determine the ways in which they
develop psychologically and socially.
a. Familial influence c. Exercise and health
b. Environment d. Geographical influences
59. Sexual pleasure by inflicting pain upon the victim.
a. Masochism c. Sadism
b. Voyeurism d. Tranvestism
60. Personality trait of being careful, or diligent.
61. A component of learning where an activity or exercise is repeated and refined to solidify the
lessons learned.
a. Familial influence c. Environment
b. Learning exercise d. Reinforcement
62. A false belief held by a person which is not held by others of the same cultural background.
a. Psychosis c. Delusion
b. Confused thinking d. Hallucination
63. The idea that all people should have rights. All human being are born free and equal in
dignity and rights.
a. Human development c. Right to development
b. Human rights d. Human behavior
64. Sexual indulgence seeing nude woman/man in some form of sexual act.
65. Sexual fulfillment by exposure of private organs or entire body.
a. Masochism c. Exhibitionism
66. A person who has suffered direct, or threatened, physical, emotional or pecuniary harm as a
result of the commission of a crime, or in the case of a victim being an institutional entity,
any of the same harms by an individual or authorized representative of another entity.
67. Involves much more than schooling, it is building the child up mentally, intellectually,
emotionally and socially so they operate as healthy functional individuals in the society.
b. Learning d. Reinforcement
68. A compromise reaction where on directs or shifts behavior to something unacceptable by a
society.
a. Isolation c. Sublimation
b. Overcompensation d. Substitution
69. Task that arises at or about a certain period in life, unsuccessful achievement of which leads
to inability to perform tasks associated with the next period or stage in life.
a. Personality task c. Work task
b. Social psychology theories d. Developmental task
70. Specific form of neurotic disturbance marked by actions which are repeated for unexplained
reasons in a patterned form of behavior compulsion.
71. Activities that are done before any crime incident happens and include risk reduction
activities.
72. The ___________ of a family determines the quality of the opportunity a child gets.
a. Familial influence c. Socio-economic status
73. Sexual gratification by enduring pain inflicted upon himself.
74. The person sees, hears, feels, smells or tastes something that is not actually there.
75. Refers to the process of reentry into society by persons that have been in prison, or
incarcerated.
a. Rehabilitation c. Correction
b. Reintegration d. Probation
76. Emphasized the basic goodness of human beings.
77. A withdrawal reaction which prohibit from conscious awareness especially unacceptable
desires or impulses.
b. Regression d. Reaction formation
78. Refers to demeanors which are resorted to in a regular basis it may be further characterized
as emotional and language.
79. Resorts to day dream as a temporary escape from the frustration of reality.
80. Behavior which seeks stimulation and gratification by means other than heterosexual, like
with animals, etc.
a. Sexual deviancy c. Satyriasis
b. Nymphomania d. Normal sexuality
81. Focused on helping us understand and explain social behavior.
a. Humanistic theories c. Society theories
82. It is shown by a person who is hypersensitive, unwarranted suspicion, jealousy, envy and
feelings of excessive importance.
83. The desire of the individual to counterbalance inferiority to that of something he can
succeed.
b. Overcompensation d. Compensation
84. Sexual interest in an object or part of the body other than sexual organ.
a. Transvestism c. Sadism
b. Fetishism d. Voyeurism
85. Personality disorder characterized by a long term pattern of disregard for, or violation of,
the rights of others.
86. Refers to behavior that is driven by internal rewards.
87. Personality trait manifesting itself in individual behavioral characteristics that are perceived
as kind, sympathetic, cooperative, warm, and considerate.
88. Where the children live also has a great influence on how they turn out to be.
89. There is severe disintegration of personality, inappropriate giggling and smiling, sometimes
facial grimacing and use of bizarre language which does not make sense.
a. Hebeborenic c. Paranoid schizophrenia
b. Simple schizophrenia d. Manic-depressive reaction
90. There is a manifest flight of ideas, unusual elation, hyperactivity or increase sociability.
91. Psychiatric disorder with extreme mood swings – acute euphoria and severe depression.
a. Hebeborenic c. Bipolar disorder
b. Schizophrenia d. Dissociative neurosis
92. Sexual completion that leads to mature adjusted individual capable of entering into
relationships with a member of the opposite sex which is both physically and emotionally
stable and satisfying to both heterosexual partners.
93. Sexual gratification or excitement by wearing clothes and acting the role of opposite sex.
94. Regarded as an inalienable human right which all peoples are entitled to participate in,
contribute to, and enjoy: economic, social, cultural and political development, in which all
human rights and fundamental freedoms can be fully realized.
b. Abnormal human behavior d. Human rights & development
95. A major mental disorder characterized by a disintegration of personality and an inability to
relate to others.
96. When actually ill, people with psychotic symptoms experience disordered thought.
97. Gradual deterioration of drive ambition and the ability to function reflected in the absence of
social relationships, inability of functioning above marginal level in school. There is no
delusion or hallucination.
98. There is delusion of persecution or grandeur, hallucination usually auditory sometimes is
present.
99. Sexual intercourse between women.
a. Lesbianism c. Homosexuality
b. Bisexual d. Incest
100. The process of directing anger to someone or something other than he is angry at.
Prepared by:
Arnold F. Abiog, Ph.D.Crim.

Professor
NAGA COLLEGE FOUNDATION LEA 1
M.T. Villanueva Ave., Naga City Law Enforcement Organization and Admin
Criminal Justice Education Department Final Examination Criminal Justice
MUTLIPLE CHOICE: Select the correct answer for each of the following question. Mark only one
answer for each item by shading the space below the letter of your choice. AVOID ERASURE.
1. Type of promotion in the PNP service as provided by R.A. 8511, except:

a) Spot Promotion c) Regular Promotion
b) Special Promotion d) Promotion by Virtue of Position
2. Promotion may be extended to any member of the PNP for acts of conspicuous courage and
gallantry at the risk of life above and beyond the call of duty or selected as such in a national
search conducted by the PNP or any accredited civic organization.
3. The appointing authorities for promotion to the rank of Police Officer 1(Patrolman/
Patrolwoman) to Senior Police Officer IV(Police Executive Master Sergeant).
a) Chief, PNP c) Regional Director
b) Director of NSU d) All of the above
4. The appointing authorities for promotion to the rank of Police Inspector(Police Lieutenant) to
Superintendent(Police Lieutenant Colonel).
a) Chief, PNP c) Regional Director, Director of NSU
b) President d) All of the above
5. Following are considered mandatory requirements for promotion, except:

a) Educational Attainment & Mandatory In-Service Training
b) Work Experience or Time in grade to the present position
c) Appropriate Eligibility
d) Awards and Medals
6. The appropriate training for applicant to be promoted as Police Chief Superintendent(Police

Brigadier General).
a) Master in National Security Administration (MNSA) or allied related master s
degree
b) Public Safety Officers Senior Executive Course or Directorial Staff Course
(PSOSEC/DSC)
c) Public Safety Senior Leadership Course (PSSLC)
d) None of the above
7. The appropriate training for applicant to be promoted as Police Inspector(Police Lieutenant).

a) Public Safety Officer Candidate Course (PSOCC)
b) Public Safety Officer Candidate Course (PSOCC)
c) Bachelor of Science in Public Safety (BSPS)
d) All of the above
8. Refers to the retirement or separation from the police service of PNP uniformed personnel
pursuant to any of the means mentioned in Section 24 to 29 of R.A. No. 8551 and other means
as provided in the Circular.
a) Attrition b) Retirement c) Separation d) Abolition
9. Refers to the training required to make the temporary appointment of a new PNP member
permanent.
a) Military training b) PNP scout training c) Field training d) Intelligence
training
10. Refers to the termination of employment and official relations of a PNP member who rendered
at least twenty (20) years of active service in the government with payment of corresponding
benefits.
11. Citizen's complaint where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to
specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof for a period not
exceeding fifteen (15) days shall be brought before.
a) Chief of Police b) Mayor c) PLEB d) C,PNP
12. Citizen's complaint where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction
to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof for a period
exceeding thirty (30) days shall be brought before.
13. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall
be approximately in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
a. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants.
b. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1,500) inhabitants.
c. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants.
d. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000) inhabitants.
14. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences
related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
a. Logistics Service c. Communication and Electronics Service
b. Crime Laboratory d. Finance Center
15. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

a. Inspector c. asst. chief
b. senior superintendent d. chief superintendent
16. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment.
a. 25% c. 10%
b. 5% d. 20%
17. What is the required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in
the PNP?
a. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
b. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
c. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
d. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age
• 18. What is the equivalent rank of a Police Executive Master Sergeant

in the AFP?
a. Master Sergeant c. Lieutenant
b. Captain d. None of these
19. Hereunder are the general qualification and standards in the recruitment and selection of
police personnel except:
a. Citizen of the Philippines
b. A person of good moral Character
c. Must be eligible in accordance with the standards set by the Mayor
d. Must be at least 1 meter & 62 centimeters in height for male and 1 meter & 57
centimeters for female
20. The appropriate eligibilities to Police Officer;

a. NAPOLCM PNP Entrance Examination
b. R.A. 6506, Licensed Criminologist
c. Civil Service Eligibilities
d. All of the above
21. The screening and evaluation at the municipal/city levels shall be chaired/headed by the______
as chairman of the Local Peace and Oder Council (LPOC).
a. Mayor c. COP
b. DILG d. Parish Priest
22. It is given to PNP applicant to determine whether or not she/he possess the required
coordination, strength and speed of movement necessary on the police service.
a. Physical Agility Test c. Character and Background Investigation
b. Medical Examination d. Psychiatric or Psychological Examination
23. It shall determine the applicants’ aptitude to join the police service, likableness, affability,
outside interest, conversational ability, disagreeable mannerisms, etc.
a. Medical Examination c. CBI
b. Final Interview d. PAT
24. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is
A. 15 years B. 25 years
C. 30 years D. 20 years
25. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for length
of service is called
A. Retirement B. Dismissal
C. Demotion D. AWOL
26. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous service shall be
retired or separated if the said period of non promotion gained with in:
A. 20 yrs B. 10 yrs
C. 18 months D. none of these
27. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are
automatically deputized as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM B. DND
C. PLEB D. None of the above
28. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as

a) PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998 c) PNP Law
b) DILG Act of 1990 d) Police Act of 1990
29. In order to qualify appointment to PNP service, an applicant must

a. be known to the appointing authority c. have masters degree
b. be close to politician d. be a citizen of the Philippines
30. The minimum height requirement for female applicant in the PNP is
a. 1.62 meters c. 1.57 meters
b. 1.60 meters d. 1.58 meters
31. A male PNP applicant should be at least ______ in height.

32. Age limit for new applicant in the PNP

a. must not less than 21 nor more than 30 c. more than 18
b. must not less than 18 nor more than 35 d. more than 21
33. The Commission may set a lower height requirement for applicants who belong to
a. Cultural communities c. members of the Aetas group
b. members of the Tausog d. All of the above
34. Waiver of educational requirement may be granted to an applicant who has finished
a. high school
b. or has earned at least 72 collegiate units leading to a bachelor’s degree
c. 3rd year college
d. College Degree
35. The field training for the PNP new recruits shall be for
a) one and one half year c) eight months and two month OJT
b) twelve months inclusive d) six months basic & six month OJT
36. Any PNP applicant under waiver program, after being admitted into the PNP and fails to satisfy
the waived requirements within the specified periods shall
a. renew his/her appointment c. receive a benefit
b. be separated from the service d. continue the service
37. The rank of the Chief PNP is

a.Police General c. Police Brigadier General
b. Police Major General
d. Police Lieutenant General
38. How many police officers are holders of the rank Police General?
a. two police officers c. three police officers
b. one police officer d. four police officers
39. What is the descriptive title of the Chief of the Police Regional Office?
a. Regional Commander c. Regional Director
b. Regional Police Chief d. Regional Chief PNP
40. What is the descriptive title of the Chief of the Police Provincial Office?
a. Provincial Commander c. Provincial Director
b. Provincial Police Chief d. Provincial Chief PNP
41. Agency that administers the entrance and promotional examinations to applicants and members
of the PNP.
a. Civil Service Commission c. National Police Commission
b. Commission on Good Government d. DILG
42. The appointing authority of PNP personnel with the rank of Police General.
a. President of the Philippines c. Chief PNP
b. Civil Service Commission d. Regional Director
46. Otherwise known as the Philippine National Police Reform and Reorganization Act of
1998.
a. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 5815 d. R.A. 9657
47. An Act establishing the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department
of the Interior and Local Government.
a. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 5815 d. R.A. 9657
48. Creating an insular police force entitled An Act Providing for the Organization of an
Insular Constabulary and for the Inspection of the Municipal Police.
a. R.A 6975 c. R.A. 7610
b. Organic Act No. 175 d. R.A. 8551
49. The first Filipino Chief of Philippine Constabulary in December 1917.

a. Henry T Allen c. Major Taylor
b. Brig. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Chief Baker
50. President Marcos proclaimed Martial Law throughout the country by virtue of
Proclamation No. 1081 on______.
a. September 21, 1972 c. November 21, 1972
b. September 21, 1973 d. November 21, 1973



Brigadier General).
degree
(PSOSEC/DSC)

d) All of the above
permanent.
training
benefits.

a. 25% c. 10%
b. 5% d. 20%
the PNP?

in the AFP?

d. All of the above
a. Mayor c. COP
C. Demotion D. AWOL
A. 20 yrs B. 10 yrs
A. NAPOLCOM B. DND




a. high school
c. 3rd year college
d. College Degree

of the PNP.
1998.
a. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 5815 d. R.A. 9657
a. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 5815 d. R.A. 9657
a. R.A 6975 c. R.A. 7610

Naga College Foundation, Inc.
Liboton St., Naga City 4400, Philippines
COLLEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
Subject: Forensics 1 Examination: Final Exam
INSTRUCTION: Choose the letter of the correct answer for each of the following
questions. SHADE the corresponding letter of your answer on the ANSWER SHEET
provided. ERASURES AND ALTERATIONS ARE NOT ALLOWED
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. It refers to the study of the general practices, methods and steps in taking
pictures of the crime scene physical things and other circumstances that can be
used as criminal evidences or for law enforcement purposes.
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
2. It is the art or process of producing images of objects on sensitized surfaces by
the chemical action of light.
A. Photography C. Forensic photography
3. It is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene because it
captures TIME, SPACE AND EVENT
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
4. It is a method of recording images by the action of light or related radiations on
a sensitive material
A. Macrophotography C. Photography
B. Photomicrography D. All of the foregoing
5. He was the first person to coin the word CAMERA OBSCURA IN 1604, and in
1609, he further suggested the use of a lens to improve the image projected by
a Camera Obscura.
A. Isaac Newton C. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. William Henry Fox Talbot D. Johannes Kepler
6. The field of photography covering the legal application of photography in criminal
jurisprudence and criminal investigations.
7. It is an image produced through the action of light.
8. It is a representation or image on a surface especially as a work of art. Example:
painting, drawing, print or photograph.
9. It is the type of photography which focuses on the preparation of photographic
evidence needed by prosecutors and courts of law
10. It is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object without
the use of a microscope, by using a short focus lens or macro lens/close-up lens
and a long bellow extension.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
11. It is the production of photographs in which the image of an object is reproduced
much smaller than it actually is, it is the opposite of photomicrography.
Page 1 of 9
12. It refers to the recording of images formed by infrared radiation. This type of
photography uses a special type of film that is sensitive to infrared radiation.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
13. The type of photography that is best used in aerial surveillance since it allows
the viewer to see things clearly even in bad weather conditions.
14. It is the process that records the glow or visible light given off by certain
substances when they are irradiated by ultraviolet rays.
15. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate record of
the crime scene because it captures __________.
A. Time C. Event
B. Space D. All of the foregoing
16. It is a branch of forensic science dealing with the preparation of photographic
evidence needed by prosecutors and courts of law.
A. Photography C. Infrared photography
B. Police photography D. Forensic photography
17. A photograph of the crime scene is capable of capturing the event that
happened. What does EVENT pertains to?
A. The WHERE of the Crime C. The WHAT of the Crime
B. The WHEN of the Crime D. The HOW of the Crime
18. The word PHOTOGRAPHY was derived from the Greek word Phos which means
to light, and the word Graphos which means __________.
A. To draw C. To see
B. To Graph D. To click
19. It is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full length, half body,
right and left side views, and two quarter views.
A. Investigation C. Mug-shot Photography
B. Aerial Photography D. Personal Identification
20. It is the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and
evidence for laboratory examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
A. Police photography C. Surveillance photography
B. Forensic photography D. Aerial photography
21. An evidence that is presented in court once accepted will become known as
__________.
A. Evidence C. Proof
B. Exhibit D. Photographic Evidence
22. Before an evidence is accepted in court, it is a requirement that they must first
satisfy the basic requirements of admissibility which is __________.
A. Relevancy D. Both A and B
B. Competency E. None of the Above
23. Which of the following is best used in the examination of questioned or disputed
documents?
A. Infrared Photography C. Photomicrography
B. UV Photography D. X-ray Photography
24. The word forensic was derived from the Latin word ___________ which means
“a market place” where people gathered for public discussion.
A. Forens C. Forum
B. Forensis D. Legal
Page 2 of 9
25. It is the mechanical and chemical result of Photography.
26. It is generally known as the birth year of photography.
A. 1604 C. 1827
B. 1609 D. 1839
27. It is the process of taking photograph of a far object with the aid of a long focus
and Telephoto lens.
A. Photomicrography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Telephotography
28. The process of photographing unseen objects with the naked eye with the use of
ultra-violet rays and filters.
A. UV Photography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Infrared Photography
29. The use of photography from which reproduction of the evidence can be made in
any number giving unlimited opportunity for its examination without
compromising the original.
A. For Identification C. For Communication
B. For Reproduction and Copying D. For Preservation
30. Refers to the zone of acceptable sharpness or the area or zone of a photograph,
from front to back, which is in focus.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
31. Refers to the range of distance in a scene that appears to be in focus and will be
reproduced as being acceptably sharp, it could be shallow or greater.
32. In the relationship between the f-number, lens opening and the depth of field,
the higher the f-number, the _________ the lens opening, the _________ depth
of field.
A. Larger; Shallow C. Smaller; Greater
B. Larger; Greater D. Smaller; Shallow
33. This refers to the zone of focus in the camera.
34. Refers to the distance between the focal point of a lens and the film plane when
the lens is focused at infinity.
A. Hyperfocal Distance C. Focal Length
B. Hyperfocal Point D. Focal Point
35. The central or principal point of focus.
36. When the lens is focused on infinity, the distance of the nearest object in a scene
that is acceptably sharp is called ___________?
A. Depth of Focus C. Hyperfocal Point
B. Hyperfocal Distance D. Focal Point
37. When the lens is focused on infinity, the nearest point to the camera that is
acceptably sharp is the __________.
A. Depth of Focu10s C. Hyperfocal Point
38. A piece of glass, plastic or any transparent substance bounded by two surfaces
of different curvature, generally spherical, by which rays of light may be made to
converge or diverge.
A. Lens C. Mirror
Page 3 of 9
B. Prism D. Viewfinder
39. A very important part of the camera which controls the amount of light that
reaches the film. It also controls the magnification of the image.
A. Prism C. Mirror
B. Lens D. Viewfinder
40. A type of lens which diverge light and produce a virtual or real image. Also called
a diverging lens.
A. Chromatic Lens C. Concave Lens
B. Process Lens D. Convex Lens
41. A camera lens which has a focal length of 24mm-35mm is categorized as
_________?
A. Ultra-Wide Angle Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Wide Angle Lens D. Telephoto Lens
42. It refers to the failure of light rays to focus properly after they pass through a
lens or reflect from a mirror.
A. Aberration C. Curvature of field
B. Coma D. Astigmatism
43. This lens defect arises from a variation of magnification with axial distance and is
not caused by a lack of sharpness in the image.
A. Barrel Distortion C. Distortion
B. Wave Distortion D. Pincushion Distortion
44. A type of distortion which is present when straight lines running parallel with the
picture edges appear to bow inward.
45. It is a tinted glass, gelatin or plastic disc, squares or rectangles that modify light
passing through them.
A. Filter C. Haze Filter
46. When using a red filter, what colors of light will be absorbed?
A. Blue C. Green and Blue
B. Red D. Red and Green
47. A filter that absorbs atmospherically scattered sunlight. This filter affect the gray
tone of colored objects.
A. Haze Filter C. Neutral Density Filter
B. Skylight Filter D. Polarizing Filter
48. It is a transparent cellulose nitrate or cellulose acetate composition made in thin,
flexible strips or sheets and coated with a light sensitive emulsion for taking
photograph.
A. Filter C. Photographic Paper
B. Film D. Top Coating
49. A black dye applied on the rear surface of the film used to absorb light that may
penetrate the emulsion layer, preventing it to reflect back to the emulsion.
A. Top Coating C. Emulsion Layer
B. Anti-Halation Backing D. Film Base
50. It is an over coating of a thin layer of hard gelatin which helps protect the silver
halide emulsion from scratches and abrasions.
51. It is the light sensitive portion of a film or paper that records the image.
52. A film which is sensitive to all colors and are further subdivided according to their
degree of sensitivity to each color.
Page 4 of 9
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Infrared Film D. Non-Chromatic Film
53. It is the most commonly used film in investigative photography because it
produces the most natural recording of colors.
B. Non-Chromatic Film D. Infrared Film
54. This refers to the heart of a digital camera.
A. Film C. Lens
B. Sensor D. Battery
55. It is that sensitized material that will record the visible image in the final
development and become the photograph.
A. Film C. Photographic Filter
B. Photographic Paper D. Sensor
56. In the chemical processing, this refers to the process necessary for reducing the
silver halides to form the image.
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
57. In the development of the negative, what is the main developing agent being
used?
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Dektol D. Acetic Acid
58. Under the stages of development, this refers to the process by which all
unexposed silver halides are dissolved or removed from the emulsion surface
making the image more permanent.
59. In the process of fixation, this is the commonly used fixing agent to make the
image in the film permanent.
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Acetic Acid
60. The development stage normally composed of water with a little amount of dilute
acetic acid that serves as a means to prevent contamination between the
developer and the acid fixer
61. This refers to the gradual fading of the image towards the side through skillful
adjustment on the dodging board.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
62. A darkroom technique which refers to the process of eliminating unwanted
portion of the negative during enlarging.
63. It refers to the addition of exposure on a desired portion of the negative used for
purposes of making a balance exposure
B. Dye-toning D. Burning-in
64. The process of omitting an object during the process of enlarging and printing.
65. It refers to the sensitivity of the film emulsion to light, which is measured and expressed
in a numerical rating called ISO, formerly known as ASA/DIN.
A. Film Speed C. Lens
B. Emulsion Layer D. Camera
Page 5 of 9
66. It is the crime scene view which establishes or shows the general location and
condition or the overall view of the crime scene to include reference point.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
67. In the conduct of crime scene photography, what “crime scene view” is needed
to be taken first?
A. General View C. Midrange View
B. Close-up View D. Birds’ Eye View
68. A crime scene view which is utilized to facilitate identification or to show the
extent of damage or injury caused by the suspect.
69. The requirement in crime scene photography wherein photographs taken must
show its purpose and photograph must for a set together related to the scene as
a whole.
A. Admissibility C. Consistency
B. Clarity D. Scale
70. It is a requirement in crime scene photography that is applied to determine the
actual measurement/size of the object being photographed.
B. Clarity D. Scale
71. If in the crime scene a street sign or the building name is not present to orient
its location, the following can be used as reference point to orient the viewer of
its general location, except:
A. Known Building C. Natural Feature in the Area
B. A Car Parked D. Streetlight Post
72. What is the reason why the entire exterior of the building should be
photographed?
A. To establish location of the crime scene
B. To determine possible entrance and exits of perpetrators
C. To locate possible offenders
D. To show the appearance of the crime scene
73. Which of the following is a disadvantage of diagonal view in capturing an overall
exterior of a building?
A. The near side and the far side have the same perspective
B. The façade has a better view
C. Flash cannot light all areas equally
D. It can identify possible entrance and exit in the building
74. In capturing the overall exterior of a large building, what type of lens is best
applicable?
A. Fisheye Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Telephoto lens D. Wide Angle Lens
75. Once inside the crime scene room, take a complete set of “interior overall
photographs”. The phrase “interior overall photographs” means
__________________.
A. All kinds of documentation C. All crime scene view of the room
B. The overall exterior view D. Full 360° view of the room
76. To eliminate shadow of objects when photographing a dim crime scene, what
should the photographer do?
A. Detach flash C. Use bounce flash technique
B. Use direct flash technique D. Add more light intensity to the flash
77. Which of the following would depict a fair and accurate relationship between the
distance of a subject and the reference point?
A. Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Parallel View
Page 6 of 9
B. Linear Point of View D. Diagonal Point of View
78. It is a cardinal rule in crime scene photography whereby only the subject matter
at hand should be seen in the photograph. All other extraneous elements should
be excluded from the photo.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
79. If the relationship of the evidence to a fixed feature of the scene is the only story
that should be told in a particular photograph, everything else that does not
contribute to this goal should be eliminated from the field of view. This pertains
to the cardinal principle which is to _________________.
80. In the documentation of wounds especially on the sensitive portion of the female
body, the foremost requirement before taking photographs is the
_____________.
A. Wounds Sustained C. Victims’ Consent
B. Relation to the Suspect D. Skill in Photography
81. It is a lighting technique which uses normal copy lighting with one or more light
sources at a 45-degree angles.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
82. It is a lighting technique in which an opaque material is placed between the light
source and the subject to diffuse the light. This usually results in even lighting
with reduced reflections and hot spots.
B. Direct Lighting D. Diffused Lighting
83. It is a cardinal rule in photography, which means that the photographer must
aligned himself perpendicularly to subject being photographed.
84. Under the evidence close-up photography, it is a special technique that is
commonly uses a light source at a low angle, usually to show detail by creating
shadows in the subject surface. It is commonly used when photographing
impressions, tool marks and certain types of fingerprints.
85. It is a lighting technique that is applied when the subject is transparent. The
light source is transmitted through the subject toward the lens.
A. Direct Lighting C. Bounce Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
86. It is an evidence close-up photography technique that is best applied and is
effective when photographing fingerprints on mirrors and into glasses or cups to
eliminate or minimize reflection.
A. Diffused Lighting C. Direct Reflective Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Front Directional or Axis Lighting
87. If during the investigation, there is a presence of soot in the surroundings of the
gunshot wound, this is in indication that _____________________.
A. The shot was fired 10 meters away from the victim
B. The shot was fired at a distance
C. The shot was fired in contact with the victim
D. None of the above.
88. In taking photographs of wounds and injuries sustained by live victims on the
sensitive portions of the body, what should be the considered?
A. Include in the photograph the face of the victim to facilitate identification
Page 7 of 9
B. Include the fix features of the body to locate the injury
C. Only the injuries/wounds that are significant should be photographed
D. All of the above
89. It is the law which established the rules on electronic evidence in the Philippines.
It is also known as the E-Commerce Law.
A. RA 10175 C. RA 8792
B. RA 8551 D. RA 6539
90. In the rules of admissibility, evidence must have such a relation to the fact in
issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. This means that the
evidence must be ___________.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate
91. An evidence is said to be ___________ when it is not excluded by the rules of
court or by the law.
92. In the rules of admissibility, pictures must not emotionally influence the judge
and the witnesses as to the facts of the case. This means that photographs
should be ________.
A. Competent C. Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion
93. In the rules of admissibility of evidence, the photograph should depict that a
crime was actually committed and what crime was committed.
94. In the rules on electronic evidence, who has the burden of proving the
authenticity of the evidence to be presented?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Prosecutor on Case
B. The Offended Party D. The Person Seeking to Introduce the Evidence
95. Under Philippine law, evidence is competent when it relates directly to the fact in
issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
A. True C. Partly True
B. False D. Partly False
96. If the person who made the recording is not available during the presentation of
the electronic evidence, who may prove its authenticity?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Witness
B. Other Persons Competent to Testify D. The Prosecutor of the case
97. The principal requirements to admit a photograph either digital or film-based into
evidence are:
A. Free of Distortion and Accuracy C. Relevance and Authentication
B. Material and Relevant D. Competency and Relevancy
98. In this method of proving authenticity, the affiant shall be made to affirm the
contents of the affidavit in open court and may be cross-examined as a matter of
right by the adverse party.
A. Cross-Examination of the Deponent C. Interview the Witnesses
B. Affidavit of Evidence D. Testimony of Witnesses
99. If the electronic evidence presents a faithful and clear representation of the
subject, it means that the evidence is ___________.
A. Competent C. Material and Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion and Accurate
100. Mr. X is seeking to introduce an evidence of a decomposed body in the
court. He was denied to introduce evidence because it is so smelly. This denotes
that the evidence is ___________.
A. Not Competent C. Irrelevant
Page 8 of 9
B. Inflammatory D. Not Accurate
“Never Give Up.

Today is Hard, Tomorrow is Worse,
But the Day after Tomorrow is Sunshine.”
- Jack Ma
Page 9 of 9
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a Camera Obscura.
Page 1 of 9
A. Time C. Event
__________.
documents?
A. Forens C. Forum
Page 2 of 9
A. 1604 C. 1827
B. 1609 D. 1839
and Telephoto lens.
of field.
A. Lens C. Mirror
Page 3 of 9
A. Prism C. Mirror
a diverging lens.
_________?
photograph.
Page 4 of 9
A. Film C. Lens
used?
Page 5 of 9
to be taken first?
a whole.
B. Clarity D. Scale
B. Clarity D. Scale
photographed?
applicable?
__________________.
Page 6 of 9
_____________.
Page 7 of 9
D. All of the above
A. RA 10175 C. RA 8792
B. RA 8551 D. RA 6539
should be ________.
evidence are:
Page 8 of 9
“Never Give Up.

- Jack Ma
Page 9 of 9
right or wrong.
(man-made).
behavior.
praise.
delusions.
yourself.
his undoing.
their well-being.
and attention.
is unavoidable.
lessons learned.
dignity and rights.
society.
activities.
incarcerated.
with animals, etc.
succeed.
relate to others.
present.
Prepared by:

Professor
Naga College Foundation
CRIMINOLOGY - 1
Introduction to Criminology and
Psychology of Crime
INSTRUCTION:
1. Read carefully the questions before answering.
2. On the answer sheet provided, shade the space below the
letter of your choice.
3. STRICTLY ERASURES and ALTERATIONS ARE NOT
ALLOWED.
4. Use BLACK or BLUE ballpen only.
1. It is a type of victims by HENTIG, it is victim who asked for it, often from
his or her own family and friends?
A. Imaginary victim C. Heartbroken
B. Tormentor D. Depressed
2. It is the typology of victims that pretends to be one due to a mental
disorder?
A. Most guilty victim C. Imaginary victim
B. Victim more guilty than offender D. Victim with minor guilt
3. It is the undesirable consequence caused by some external forces, or by
some individual group or organization?
A. Victim C. Victimized
B. Victimization D. Victimology
4. This refers to a discipline or study which deals of the nature, causes of
victimization, as well as the programs for auditing and preventing
victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimized
B. Victim D. Victimization
5. These victims are unsure of rules of conduct in the surrounding society;
A. The Dull Normals C. The Immigrants
B. The Mentally Defective D. The Young
6. Promiscuous persons would fall under this victim typology;
A. The Dull Normals C. The Depressed
B. The Wanton D. The Tormentor
7. They are often victims of racial prejudice or unequal treatment by the
agencies of justice;
A. The Immigrants C. The Minorities
B. The Dull Normal D. The Acquisitive
8. These victims are always wanting for more and looking for quick gains;
A. The Acquisitive C. The Lonesome
9. They are incapable of physical defense and the object of confidence
schemes;
A. The Female C. The Mentally Defective
B. The Old D. The Young
10. At times, the victim is one who asked for the act, often from relatives and
friends. What types of victim is this?
A. The Mentally Defective C. The Tormentor
B. The Wanton D. The Acquisitive
11. Anger, jealousy, or destructive impulses increase chances of being
victimized. What type of characteristics does this exemplify?
A. Target vulnerability C. Target antagonism
B. Target gratifiability D. Target hostility
12. Drinking, taking drugs, and getting involved in crime increase a person’s
exposure to offenders. This is based on what victimization theory?
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Deviant place theory
B. Lifestyle theory D. Routine activity theory
13. Victim’s physical weakness or psychological distress renders him
incapable of resisting or deterring crime. This typifies what type of victim
characteristics?
14. Some victims have possessions, skills, or attributes that an offender
wants to obtain, use, have access to, or manipulate. This refers to:
A. Target antagonism C. Target gratifiability
B. Target hostilioty D. Target vulnerability
15. According to this theory, victims do not encourage crime but are prone to
victimization because they reside in socially disorganized high-crime areas
where they have the greatest risk of coming into contact with criminal
offenders.
16. These individuals stay out of trouble, do not have peers that are criminal,
are aware of their surroundings, and attempt to take precautions so as not to
become victims.
A. Low-risk victims C. High-risk victims
B. Moderate-risk victims D. Extremely high-risk victims
17. According to this view, some people may actually initiate confrontation
that eventually leads to their injury or death.
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Deviant place theory D. Lifestyle theory
18. A person that is stranded on s dark, secluded highway due to a flat tire,
and accepts a ride from a stranger would be a good example of this type of
victim level risk.
A. High-risk victims C. Extremely high-risk victim
B. Moderate-risk victim D. Low-risk victims
19. This theory asserts that there are three variables of victimization – the
availability of suitable targets, the absence of capable guardians, and the
presence of motivated offenders.
A. Deviant place theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Victim precipitation theory D. Lifestyle theory
20. Which of the following can be considered a high-risk potential victim?
A. A person stranded on a dark C. All Prostitute
B. A person who takes all precautions D. All of these
21. It is a stage of victim that describe the state of the victim prior to being
victimized?
A. Pre-impact stage C. Post impact stage
B. Impact stage D. Behavioral stage
22. It entails the degree and duration of personal and social disorganization
following victimization, what stage of victimization is this?
B. Impact stage D. Behavior stage
23. It is other types of victimization that do not come under the jurisdiction
of the criminal law and they are hard to detect.
A. Collective victimization C. Institutional victimization
B. Corporate victimization D. Multiple victimization
24. This type of victimization presents serious methodological problems, but
may be of great help in understanding certain types of victimization.
25. It is other types of victimization that victimization is directed at, or
affecting the whole group, members have nothing or not much in common,
and the group as not targeted as a specific entity.
26. This victimization in which the victim had been subjected to the same
type of criminal victimization several types.
A. Cross-crime victimization C. Repeated victimization
B. Instantaneous victimization D. Continuing victimization
27. This refers to households that experience different types of victimization
during the reference period.
B. Continuing victimization D. Instantaneous victimization
28. It occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or fighting words, or
even attack first.
A. Victim precipitation C. Passive precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Lifestyle theory
29. Which among the following have higher fear of crime?
A. Male C. Lesbian
B. Female D. Homosexual
30. It occurs when the victim exhibits some personal characteristics that
unknowingly threaten or encourage the attacker.
31. It refers to a social scientist who deals with the study of the causes of
victimization and the programs of preventing victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimization
B. Victimologist D. Victimized
32. It refers to treat unfairly, to make into a victim or cause somebody to
become a victim to cause or suffer?
A. Victim C. Victimology
B. Victimize D. Victimization
33. It refers to somebody hurt or killed by somebody or something especially
in a crime, accident or disaster?
A. Victimize C. Victimologist
B. Victimization D. Victim
34. He coined the term victimology, through which he earned the title,
“father of victimology” of this sub-disciple of criminology;
A. Hans Von Hentig C. Benjamin Mendelsohn
B. Cesare Lombroso D. Andre Michel Guerry
35. This scientist wrote the book “The Criminal and His Victim,” which
played the way to understanding the victim’s role in crime occurrence;
A. Andre Michel Guerry C. Cesare Lombroso
B. Hans Von Hentig D. Benjamin Mendelsohn
36. Suicide victims are of this type?
A. Most Guilty Victim C. Victim with Minor Guilty
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
37. There is no provocation or facilitating behavior on the part of this victim;
A. Imaginary Victim C. Completely Innocent Victim
B. Victim with Minor Guilt D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
38. This type of victim places himself in a compromising situation;
A. Victim with Minor Guilt C. Victim as Guilty as Offender
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Imaginary Victim
39. When the victim provoked or instigated the causal act, he is classified as
what victim type;
A. Victim as Guilty as Offender C. Victim with Minor Guilt
B. Victim More Guilty the Offender D. Most Guilty Victim
40. What type of victim is one who started off as the offender and was hurt in
return?
A. Victim More Guilty then Offender C. Most Guilty Victim
B. Victim as Guilty as Offender D. Victim with Minor Guilt
41. Who are most likely to suffer violent crime?
A. Child C. Male
B. Women D. Old
42. Who are more likely to be a victim of rape or sexual assault?
A. Male C. Female Old
B. Female D. Young female
43. When men are the victims of violent crime the perpetrator is a
___________?
A. Friend C. Acquaintance
B. Stanger D. Kumpadre
44. On social status, who are much likely to become a crime victims?
A. Lowest income C. Average people
B. More affluent D. Educated people
45. Poor individuals are most likely the victims of crime because they live in
______ areas;
A. Subdivisions C. Secluded area
B. Sub-urban area D. Crime prone
46. On marital status who are most often victimized by crime?
A. Divorced C. Married people
B. Widow D. Widower
47. As to the gender who are more fearful of crime?
A. Female C. Lesbian
B. Male D. Transgender
48. As to the income fear of crime victimization __________ with increasing
family income?
A. Improve C. Decline
B. Increase D. Advance
49. The person’s fear in crime become low, when the level of the education
become ________.
A. Moderate C. Lower
B. High D. Average
50. What is the basis of Victim Compensation Program?
A. R.A. No. 7039 C. R.A. No. 7930
B. R.A. No. 7390 D. R.A. No. 7309
51. Who advocated the classical school of thought;
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Enrico Ferri D. Alphose Bertillon
52. Who argued that the right act or policy was that which would cause “the
greatest good for the greatest number of people”;
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Enrico Ferri
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Cesare Lombroso
53. Study of the relationship between criminality and population;
A. Criminal Etiology C. Criminal Ecology
B. Criminal Epidemiology D. Criminal Demography
54. He agreed with Lombroso on the biological bases of criminal behavior, his
interest led him to recognize the importance of social, economic and political
determinants;
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Enrico Ferri
55. The study of the relationship between environment and criminality;
A. Criminal Epidemiology C. Criminal theories
B. Criminal Demography D. Criminal Ecology
56. It is the study of mental and behavioral disorders in relation to
criminality?
A. Criminal psychology C. Criminal psychiatry
B. Criminal psychologist D. Criminal demography
57. This refers to the entire body of knowledge regarding crimes, criminals
and the effort of the society to prevent and repress them?
A. Criminalistics C. Criminal
B. Criminalist D. Criminology
58. The French anthropologist Paul Topinard used Criminology for the first
time in French: thus, the French word of Criminology is:
A. Crimenology C. Criminologie
B. Criminalogy D. Criminologia
59. It refers to an anti-social act that is injurious, detrimental or harmful to
the norms of the society; they are the unacceptable acts?
A. Offense C. Delinquency
B. Crime D. Misdemeanor
60. It is a principle believes that all individuals have freewill and make
choices on that freewill?
A. Pain pleasure principle C. Freewill principle
B. Atavism principle D. Utilitarianism principle
61. It is a principle understood that dominant motive in making choices to be
the seeking of pleasure and the avoidance of pain, people can choose legal or
illegal means to get what they want?
62. An individual with a strongly self centered pattern of emotion fantasy and
thoughts;
A. Delusion C. Masochism
B. Megalomania D. Hallucination
63. Who originated the system of classifying criminals according to bodily
measurement;
A. George L. Wilker C. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Cesare Beccaria D. David W. Maurer
64. Morbid propensity to love and make love;
A. Erotomania C. Masochism
B. Necrophilism D. Megalomania
65. Uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal;
A. Necrophilism C. Kleptomania
B. Masochism D. Dipsomania
66. Transmission of physical characteristics from parents to offspring;
A. Delusion C. Inheritance
B. Hallucination D. Masochism
67. Mental disorder which the subjects thinks himself great or exalted;
A. Melancholia C. Autophobia
68. A sexual perversion in which the subject derives pleasure from being
dominated or cruelly treated;
A. Masochism C. Necrophilism
B. Megalomania D. Erotomania
69. Morbid craving usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies;
A. Megalomania C. Masochism
B. Erotomania D. Necrophilism
70. It is a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and
depression of spirits?
A. Megalomania C. Delusion
B. Melancholia D. Masochism
71. When a person commits a crime without intent, and offender does not
know the nature of his act, due to mental disease, he committed what
crime?
A. Culpa or fault C. Irrational crime
B. Rational Crime D. Dolo or deceit
72. What is a crime that is committed only during a certain period of a year?
A. Seasonal crime C. Situational crime
B. Episodic crime D. Continuing crime
73. Those are committed only when given a situation conducive to its
commission, this is what crime?
A. Static crime C. Situational Crime
B. Instant crime D. Seasonal crime
74. What crime that can be committed by a series of act in a lengthy space
of time?
A. Instant Crime C. Situational Crime
B. Episodic Crime D. Continuing Crime
75. These are highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of money
without being detected, what criminal is this?
A. Professional Criminal C. Organized Criminal
B. Situational Criminal D. Ordinary Criminal
76. A person who violates criminal law because of the impulse of moment, fit
of passion or spell of extreme jealousy, is what criminal?
A. Acute Criminal C. Criminality
B. Chronic Criminal D. Normal Criminals
77. Pedro killed Juan by stabbing killing the person instantly, after doing the
crime he throw the victim to the river, what crime Pedro commit?
A. Continuing Crime C. Instant crime
B. Extinctive crime D. Static Crime
78. Are those felonies that the commission of which the penalty of arresto
mayor;
A. Light felonies C. Grave felonies
B. Less grave felonies D. Light crime
79. When a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies it is considered
what crime:
A. Single crime C. Complex crime
B. Grave felonies D. Culpa or fault
80. What is crime that is committed by merely duplication of what was done
by others?
A. Crime by passion C. Crimes by imitation
B. Crime by duplication D. Crime by copying
81. It is a crime that refers to crimes committed through rendition of a
service to satisfy desire of another.
A. Chronic Crime C. Static crime
B. Render crime D. Service crime
82. It is a crime committed by a government through mass destruction or
annihilation of a human population.
A. Political crime C. Transnational crime
B. Patriarchal crime D. Genocide
83. It is an act or omission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code?
A. Crime C. Felony
B. Omission D. Misdemeanor
84. It is the unlawful acts that interfere with the normal operation of society
and the ability of people to function efficiently?
A. Violent Crime C. Economic Crime
B. Public Order Crime D. White collar crime
85. It’s primarily committed to bringing financial gain to the offender?
A. Violent crime C. Public order crime
B. White collar crime D. Economic crimes
86. This means “wrong because it is prohibited”, it is an offense that are
illegal because laws define them as such, it lack universality and
timelessness?
A. Mala in se C. Actus reus
B. Mens rea D. Mala Prohibita
87. It is any standard or rule regarding what human beings should and
should not think, say or do under given circumstances.
A. Deviance C. Norms
B. Crime D. Felony
88. It refers to conduct which the people of a group consider so dangerous or
embarrassing or irritating that they bring special sanctions to bear against
the persons who exhibit it.
A. Norms C. Deviance
B. Felony D. Crime
89. It is latin word which refers to a criminal intent or a guilty state of mind;
A. Mala prohibita C. Mala in se
B. Actus reus D. Mens rea
90. This is the driving force, the reason why the accused committed the
crime.
A. Motive or Desire C. Opportunity
B. Instrument D. Intent
91. It is an act against the unwritten social norms in a locality.
A. Sin C. Crime
B. Immorality D. Felony
92. It refers to the time and place of the commission of the crime.
A. Motive C. Desire
B. Instrument D. Opportunity
93. It is a form of sexual assault, involving sexual intercourse where a
participants does not provide consent?
A. Sexual abuse C. Rape
B. Sexual harassment D. Lascivious act
94. It is any unwanted contact caused by another person resulting in harm,
injury and or discomfort?
A. Physical abuse C. Sexual abuse
B. Sexual harassment D. Domestic violence
95. It is a form of domestic violence, a traditional practice involving the
murder of a woman for bringing shame upon a family?
A. Acid throwing C. Domestic violence
B. Sexual harassment D. Honor killing
96. It is an assault or abuse between spouses with the likelihood of
victimization being more likely between people sharing a bond of intimacy?
A. Honor killing C. Domestic violence
B. Stalking D. Acid throwing
97. It refers to the acquisition of persons by means of force, fraud or
deception with the intent of exploitation?
A. Sexual abuse C. Emotional abuse
B. Human trafficking D. Prostitution
98. It refers to the use of negative comments that are offensive, embarrassing
or threatening?
A. Verbal abuse C. Physical abuse
B. Social abuse D. Sexual abuse
99. It deals with the types of violations that degrades one’s dignity, provoke
from, and or inflicts trauma on another person?
A. Verbal abuse C. Psychological/Emotional abuse
100. It refers to any behavior resulting in the isolation and alienation of a
woman from friends or family, or any action that suggest she is inferior due
to her gender or different socio-economic background?
B. Social abuse D. Emotional abuse
CRIMINOLOGY - 1
Introduction to Criminology and
Psychology of Crime
INSTRUCTION:
2. On the answer sheet provided, shade the space below the
letter of your choice.
3. STRICTLY ERASURES and ALTERATIONS ARE NOT
ALLOWED.
1. It is a type of victims by HENTIG, it is victim who asked for it, often from
his or her own family and friends?
A. Imaginary victim C. Heartbroken
B. Tormentor D. Depressed
2. It is the typology of victims that pretends to be one due to a mental
disorder?
A. Most guilty victim C. Imaginary victim
B. Victim more guilty than offender D. Victim with minor guilt
3. It is the undesirable consequence caused by some external forces, or by
some individual group or organization?
A. Victim C. Victimized
B. Victimization D. Victimology
4. This refers to a discipline or study which deals of the nature, causes of
victimization, as well as the programs for auditing and preventing
victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimized
B. Victim D. Victimization
5. These victims are unsure of rules of conduct in the surrounding society;
A. The Dull Normals C. The Immigrants
B. The Mentally Defective D. The Young
6. Promiscuous persons would fall under this victim typology;
A. The Dull Normals C. The Depressed
7. They are often victims of racial prejudice or unequal treatment by the
agencies of justice;
A. The Immigrants C. The Minorities
B. The Dull Normal D. The Acquisitive
8. These victims are always wanting for more and looking for quick gains;
A. The Acquisitive C. The Lonesome
9. They are incapable of physical defense and the object of confidence
schemes;
A. The Female C. The Mentally Defective
B. The Old D. The Young
10. At times, the victim is one who asked for the act, often from relatives and
friends. What types of victim is this?
A. The Mentally Defective C. The Tormentor
B. The Wanton D. The Acquisitive
11. Anger, jealousy, or destructive impulses increase chances of being
victimized. What type of characteristics does this exemplify?
12. Drinking, taking drugs, and getting involved in crime increase a person’s
exposure to offenders. This is based on what victimization theory?
13. Victim’s physical weakness or psychological distress renders him
incapable of resisting or deterring crime. This typifies what type of victim
characteristics?
14. Some victims have possessions, skills, or attributes that an offender
wants to obtain, use, have access to, or manipulate. This refers to:
A. Target antagonism C. Target gratifiability
B. Target hostilioty D. Target vulnerability
15. According to this theory, victims do not encourage crime but are prone to
victimization because they reside in socially disorganized high-crime areas
where they have the greatest risk of coming into contact with criminal
offenders.
16. These individuals stay out of trouble, do not have peers that are criminal,
are aware of their surroundings, and attempt to take precautions so as not to
become victims.
A. Low-risk victims C. High-risk victims
B. Moderate-risk victims D. Extremely high-risk victims
17. According to this view, some people may actually initiate confrontation
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Deviant place theory D. Lifestyle theory
18. A person that is stranded on s dark, secluded highway due to a flat tire,
and accepts a ride from a stranger would be a good example of this type of
victim level risk.
A. High-risk victims C. Extremely high-risk victim
B. Moderate-risk victim D. Low-risk victims
19. This theory asserts that there are three variables of victimization – the
availability of suitable targets, the absence of capable guardians, and the
presence of motivated offenders.
A. Deviant place theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Victim precipitation theory D. Lifestyle theory
20. Which of the following can be considered a high-risk potential victim?
A. A person stranded on a dark C. All Prostitute
B. A person who takes all precautions D. All of these
21. It is a stage of victim that describe the state of the victim prior to being
victimized?
B. Impact stage D. Behavioral stage
22. It entails the degree and duration of personal and social disorganization
following victimization, what stage of victimization is this?
B. Impact stage D. Behavior stage
23. It is other types of victimization that do not come under the jurisdiction
of the criminal law and they are hard to detect.
24. This type of victimization presents serious methodological problems, but
may be of great help in understanding certain types of victimization.
25. It is other types of victimization that victimization is directed at, or
affecting the whole group, members have nothing or not much in common,
and the group as not targeted as a specific entity.
26. This victimization in which the victim had been subjected to the same
type of criminal victimization several types.
B. Instantaneous victimization D. Continuing victimization
27. This refers to households that experience different types of victimization
during the reference period.
B. Continuing victimization D. Instantaneous victimization
28. It occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or fighting words, or
even attack first.
29. Which among the following have higher fear of crime?
A. Male C. Lesbian
B. Female D. Homosexual
30. It occurs when the victim exhibits some personal characteristics that
unknowingly threaten or encourage the attacker.
31. It refers to a social scientist who deals with the study of the causes of
victimization and the programs of preventing victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimization
B. Victimologist D. Victimized
32. It refers to treat unfairly, to make into a victim or cause somebody to
become a victim to cause or suffer?
A. Victim C. Victimology
B. Victimize D. Victimization
33. It refers to somebody hurt or killed by somebody or something especially
in a crime, accident or disaster?
A. Victimize C. Victimologist
B. Victimization D. Victim
34. He coined the term victimology, through which he earned the title,
“father of victimology” of this sub-disciple of criminology;
A. Hans Von Hentig C. Benjamin Mendelsohn
B. Cesare Lombroso D. Andre Michel Guerry
35. This scientist wrote the book “The Criminal and His Victim,” which
played the way to understanding the victim’s role in crime occurrence;
A. Andre Michel Guerry C. Cesare Lombroso
B. Hans Von Hentig D. Benjamin Mendelsohn
36. Suicide victims are of this type?
A. Most Guilty Victim C. Victim with Minor Guilty
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
37. There is no provocation or facilitating behavior on the part of this victim;
A. Imaginary Victim C. Completely Innocent Victim
B. Victim with Minor Guilt D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
38. This type of victim places himself in a compromising situation;
A. Victim with Minor Guilt C. Victim as Guilty as Offender
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Imaginary Victim
39. When the victim provoked or instigated the causal act, he is classified as
what victim type;
A. Victim as Guilty as Offender C. Victim with Minor Guilt
B. Victim More Guilty the Offender D. Most Guilty Victim
40. What type of victim is one who started off as the offender and was hurt in
return?
A. Victim More Guilty then Offender C. Most Guilty Victim
B. Victim as Guilty as Offender D. Victim with Minor Guilt
41. Who are most likely to suffer violent crime?
A. Child C. Male
B. Women D. Old
42. Who are more likely to be a victim of rape or sexual assault?
A. Male C. Female Old
B. Female D. Young female
43. When men are the victims of violent crime the perpetrator is a
___________?
A. Friend C. Acquaintance
B. Stanger D. Kumpadre
44. On social status, who are much likely to become a crime victims?
A. Lowest income C. Average people
B. More affluent D. Educated people
45. Poor individuals are most likely the victims of crime because they live in
______ areas;
A. Subdivisions C. Secluded area
B. Sub-urban area D. Crime prone
46. On marital status who are most often victimized by crime?
A. Divorced C. Married people
B. Widow D. Widower
47. As to the gender who are more fearful of crime?
A. Female C. Lesbian
B. Male D. Transgender
48. As to the income fear of crime victimization __________ with increasing
family income?
A. Improve C. Decline
B. Increase D. Advance
49. The person’s fear in crime become low, when the level of the education
become ________.
A. Moderate C. Lower
B. High D. Average
50. What is the basis of Victim Compensation Program?
A. R.A. No. 7039 C. R.A. No. 7930
B. R.A. No. 7390 D. R.A. No. 7309
51. Who advocated the classical school of thought;
B. Enrico Ferri D. Alphose Bertillon
52. Who argued that the right act or policy was that which would cause “the
greatest good for the greatest number of people”;
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Enrico Ferri
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Cesare Lombroso
53. Study of the relationship between criminality and population;
A. Criminal Etiology C. Criminal Ecology
B. Criminal Epidemiology D. Criminal Demography
54. He agreed with Lombroso on the biological bases of criminal behavior, his
interest led him to recognize the importance of social, economic and political
determinants;
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Enrico Ferri
55. The study of the relationship between environment and criminality;
A. Criminal Epidemiology C. Criminal theories
B. Criminal Demography D. Criminal Ecology
56. It is the study of mental and behavioral disorders in relation to
criminality?
A. Criminal psychology C. Criminal psychiatry
B. Criminal psychologist D. Criminal demography
57. This refers to the entire body of knowledge regarding crimes, criminals
and the effort of the society to prevent and repress them?
A. Criminalistics C. Criminal
B. Criminalist D. Criminology
58. The French anthropologist Paul Topinard used Criminology for the first
time in French: thus, the French word of Criminology is:
A. Crimenology C. Criminologie
B. Criminalogy D. Criminologia
59. It refers to an anti-social act that is injurious, detrimental or harmful to
the norms of the society; they are the unacceptable acts?
A. Offense C. Delinquency
B. Crime D. Misdemeanor
60. It is a principle believes that all individuals have freewill and make
choices on that freewill?
61. It is a principle understood that dominant motive in making choices to be
the seeking of pleasure and the avoidance of pain, people can choose legal or
illegal means to get what they want?
62. An individual with a strongly self centered pattern of emotion fantasy and
thoughts;
A. Delusion C. Masochism
63. Who originated the system of classifying criminals according to bodily
measurement;
A. George L. Wilker C. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Cesare Beccaria D. David W. Maurer
64. Morbid propensity to love and make love;
A. Erotomania C. Masochism
B. Necrophilism D. Megalomania
65. Uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal;
A. Necrophilism C. Kleptomania
B. Masochism D. Dipsomania
66. Transmission of physical characteristics from parents to offspring;
A. Delusion C. Inheritance
B. Hallucination D. Masochism
67. Mental disorder which the subjects thinks himself great or exalted;
A. Melancholia C. Autophobia
68. A sexual perversion in which the subject derives pleasure from being
dominated or cruelly treated;
A. Masochism C. Necrophilism
B. Megalomania D. Erotomania
69. Morbid craving usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies;
A. Megalomania C. Masochism
B. Erotomania D. Necrophilism
70. It is a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and
depression of spirits?
A. Megalomania C. Delusion
B. Melancholia D. Masochism
71. When a person commits a crime without intent, and offender does not
know the nature of his act, due to mental disease, he committed what
crime?
A. Culpa or fault C. Irrational crime
B. Rational Crime D. Dolo or deceit
72. What is a crime that is committed only during a certain period of a year?
A. Seasonal crime C. Situational crime
B. Episodic crime D. Continuing crime
73. Those are committed only when given a situation conducive to its
commission, this is what crime?
A. Static crime C. Situational Crime
B. Instant crime D. Seasonal crime
74. What crime that can be committed by a series of act in a lengthy space
of time?
A. Instant Crime C. Situational Crime
B. Episodic Crime D. Continuing Crime
75. These are highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of money
without being detected, what criminal is this?
A. Professional Criminal C. Organized Criminal
B. Situational Criminal D. Ordinary Criminal
76. A person who violates criminal law because of the impulse of moment, fit
of passion or spell of extreme jealousy, is what criminal?
A. Acute Criminal C. Criminality
B. Chronic Criminal D. Normal Criminals
77. Pedro killed Juan by stabbing killing the person instantly, after doing the
crime he throw the victim to the river, what crime Pedro commit?
A. Continuing Crime C. Instant crime
B. Extinctive crime D. Static Crime
78. Are those felonies that the commission of which the penalty of arresto
mayor;
A. Light felonies C. Grave felonies
B. Less grave felonies D. Light crime
79. When a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies it is considered
what crime:
A. Single crime C. Complex crime
B. Grave felonies D. Culpa or fault
80. What is crime that is committed by merely duplication of what was done
by others?
A. Crime by passion C. Crimes by imitation
B. Crime by duplication D. Crime by copying
81. It is a crime that refers to crimes committed through rendition of a
service to satisfy desire of another.
A. Chronic Crime C. Static crime
B. Render crime D. Service crime
82. It is a crime committed by a government through mass destruction or
annihilation of a human population.
A. Political crime C. Transnational crime
B. Patriarchal crime D. Genocide
83. It is an act or omission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code?
A. Crime C. Felony
B. Omission D. Misdemeanor
84. It is the unlawful acts that interfere with the normal operation of society
and the ability of people to function efficiently?
A. Violent Crime C. Economic Crime
B. Public Order Crime D. White collar crime
85. It’s primarily committed to bringing financial gain to the offender?
A. Violent crime C. Public order crime
B. White collar crime D. Economic crimes
86. This means “wrong because it is prohibited”, it is an offense that are
illegal because laws define them as such, it lack universality and
timelessness?
A. Mala in se C. Actus reus
B. Mens rea D. Mala Prohibita
87. It is any standard or rule regarding what human beings should and
should not think, say or do under given circumstances.
A. Deviance C. Norms
B. Crime D. Felony
88. It refers to conduct which the people of a group consider so dangerous or
embarrassing or irritating that they bring special sanctions to bear against
the persons who exhibit it.
A. Norms C. Deviance
B. Felony D. Crime
89. It is latin word which refers to a criminal intent or a guilty state of mind;
A. Mala prohibita C. Mala in se
B. Actus reus D. Mens rea
90. This is the driving force, the reason why the accused committed the
crime.
A. Motive or Desire C. Opportunity
B. Instrument D. Intent
91. It is an act against the unwritten social norms in a locality.
A. Sin C. Crime
B. Immorality D. Felony
92. It refers to the time and place of the commission of the crime.
A. Motive C. Desire
B. Instrument D. Opportunity
93. It is a form of sexual assault, involving sexual intercourse where a
participants does not provide consent?
A. Sexual abuse C. Rape
B. Sexual harassment D. Lascivious act
94. It is any unwanted contact caused by another person resulting in harm,
injury and or discomfort?
B. Sexual harassment D. Domestic violence
95. It is a form of domestic violence, a traditional practice involving the
murder of a woman for bringing shame upon a family?
A. Acid throwing C. Domestic violence
B. Sexual harassment D. Honor killing
96. It is an assault or abuse between spouses with the likelihood of
victimization being more likely between people sharing a bond of intimacy?
A. Honor killing C. Domestic violence
B. Stalking D. Acid throwing
97. It refers to the acquisition of persons by means of force, fraud or
deception with the intent of exploitation?
A. Sexual abuse C. Emotional abuse
B. Human trafficking D. Prostitution
98. It refers to the use of negative comments that are offensive, embarrassing
or threatening?
A. Verbal abuse C. Physical abuse
99. It deals with the types of violations that degrades one’s dignity, provoke
from, and or inflicts trauma on another person?
A. Verbal abuse C. Psychological/Emotional abuse
100. It refers to any behavior resulting in the isolation and alienation of a
woman from friends or family, or any action that suggest she is inferior due
to her gender or different socio-economic background?
B. Social abuse D. Emotional abuse
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a Camera Obscura.
Page 1 of 9
A. Time C. Event
__________.
documents?
A. Forens C. Forum
Page 2 of 9
A. 1604 C. 1827
B. 1609 D. 1839
and Telephoto lens.
of field.
A. Lens C. Mirror
Page 3 of 9
A. Prism C. Mirror
a diverging lens.
_________?
photograph.
Page 4 of 9
A. Film C. Lens
used?
Page 5 of 9
to be taken first?
a whole.
B. Clarity D. Scale
B. Clarity D. Scale
photographed?
applicable?
__________________.
Page 6 of 9
_____________.
Page 7 of 9
D. All of the above
A. RA 10175 C. RA 8792
B. RA 8551 D. RA 6539
should be ________.
evidence are:
Page 8 of 9
“Never Give Up.

- Jack Ma
Page 9 of 9
CRIMINOLOGY 2 Theories of Crime Causation
INSTRUCTION:
2. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer in every number. WRITE the corresponding letter of your answer
on the answer sheet provided.
3. STRICTLY ERASURES and ALTERATIONS ARE NOT ALLOWED.
1. It refers to a theory which claims to be able to determine character,
personality traits and criminality on the basis of the shape of the head?
A. Physiognomy C. Endomorphic
B. Phrenology D. Ectomorphic
2. These theories of criminality basically purport that criminal behavior is the
result of some flaw in the biological makeup of the individual. This refers to:
A. Positivism Theories C. Biological Theories
B. Sociological Theories D. Learning Theories
3. It is an indeterminate factor in mobilizing the criminal act. As each person
has a unique psychological make-up, it follows that only he can achieve a
particular aim in a given environment.
A. Circumstances C. Motive
B. Situation D. Timing
4. This study has linked medical and moral deviance and fused the new
Mendelian laws with the Old biblical injunctions that “the sins of the fathers
shall be visited in the sons.” The study refers to:
A. Sir Jonathan Edwards Family Tree
B. Study of Kallikak Family Tree
C. Study of Juke Family Tree
D. Anthropological Study
5. What is a generic term of crime which is punishable by the special law such
as Republic Act and Presidential Decree?
A. Offense C. Crime
B. Felony D. Misdemeanor
6. The main notion of this school is “Let the punishment fit the criminal.”
A. French school of criminology C. Positive school of criminology
B. Classical school of criminology D. Neo-classical school of criminology
7. It involved weighing of pleasure versus pain?
A. Utilitarian C. Pain and Pleasure Principle
B. Hedonistic Calculus / Utility D. Principle of Utility
8. Who is the main advocate of Classical school?
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Raffaele Garofalo
B. Jeremy Benthan D. Cesare Beccaria
9. What is the fundamental notion of Neo-classical school?
A. Let the children and lunatic criminals be exempted from punishment.
B. Let the punishment fit the crime
C. Let every criminal receive punishment.
D. Let the punishment fit the criminal
10. What perspective claimed that crime is product of socialization or
interaction of one person to other person, and crime is a function of
upbringing, learning and control?
A. Process C. Biological
B. Perspective D. Social
11. According to this theory, potential delinquents and criminals master
techniques that enable them to counterbalance or neutralize conventional
values and drift back and forth between illegitimate and conventional behavior.
A. Differential Association Theory C. Neutralization Theory
B. Labeling Theory D. Social Learning Theory
12. This principle explains that people’s contacts with their most intimate
social companions – family, friends, and peers – have the greatest influence on
their deviant behavior and attitude development.
A. Criminal behavior is learned.
B. Learning is a by-product of interaction.
C. Learning occurs within intimate groups.
D. Criminal techniques are learned
13. The quotation “Tell me who your friends are and I will tell you who u are”
can be best associated to what theory?
A. Differential Association Theory C. Social Learning Theory
B. Strain Theory D. Culture Deviance Theory
14. It is a theory of learning process and social behavior which proposes that
new behaviors can be acquired by observing and imitating others.
15. What school presumed that criminal behavior is caused by internal and
external factors outside of the individual’s?
A. Neo-classical School C. Chicago School
B. Classical School D. Positivist School
16. This theory links criminal acts to the formation of independent subcultures
with a unique set of values that clash with the main stream culture. It argues
that offender learn deviant behavior socially through exposure to others and
modelling of other’s action.
A. Differential Association Theory C. Strain Theory
B. Culture Deviance Theory D. Social Learning Theory
17. What perspective expressed that criminal behaviour, was the product of
“unconscious” forces operating within a person’s mind?
A. Biological C. Sociological
B. Psychological D. Physiological
18. According to this theory disorganized areas cannot exert identifies by their
relatively high level of change, fear, instability, poverty, and deterioration and
these factors have direct influence on the areas delinquency rate.
A. Social organization theory
B. Social disorganization theory
C. Differential identification theory
D. Social bonding theory
with a unique set of values that clash with the main stream culture;
A. Traits theory C. Culture deviance theory
B. Strain theory D. Social bonding theory
20. This theory proposed that through interaction with others, individuals
learn the values, attitude, techniques and motive for criminal behavior;
A. Differential identification theory
B. Differential association theory
C. Differential reinforcement theory
21. This theory believe that crime is a product of learning norms, values and
behaviors associated with criminal activity;
A. Traits theory C. Bonding theory
B. Labeling theory D. Social learning
22. This theory proposed that deviance is socially constructed through reaction
instead of action;
A. Social control theory C. Social bonding theory
B. Labeling theory D. Differential identification theory
23. This theory occurs when behavior is reinforced by being either rewarded or
punished while interacting with others;
D. Neutralization theory
24. This theory viewed that process of becoming as a learning experience in
which potential delinquents and criminals master techniques that enable
counterbalance conventional values and drift, back and forth, between
illegitimate and conventional behavior;
A. Neutralization theory C. Social control theory
B. Social bonding theory D. Labeling theory
25. This theory maintained that person pursues criminal behavior to the extent
that it identifies himself with a real or imaginary person from whose
perspective his criminal behavior seems acceptable;
B. Differential reinforcement theory
C. Differential association theory
D. Labeling theory
26. It arose during the French revolution with the modification that children,
lunatics, and others were not legally responsible for their actions;
A. Classical School C. Positive School
B. Neo classical school D. Italian School
27. Political and economic forces as the causes of crimes are under the?
A. Classical perspective C. Conflict perspective
B. Process perspective D. Biological perspective
28. A standard model of decision-making whereby individuals choose between
criminal activity and legal activity on the basis of expected utility from those
acts.
A. Economic Model of Criminal Behavior C. Friedrich Engel Theory
B. Karl Marx Theory D. Willem A. Bonger Theory
29. In this technique of neutralization, the criminal argues that it is unfair for
them to be blamed for the crime and that they are being persecuted or
punished out of spite.
A. Denial of responsibility C. Denial of victim
B. Denial of injury D. Condemnation of Condemners
30. Under the theory of Karl Marx, this pertains to the economic system based
on the private ownership of the means of production and their operation
for profit.
A. Privatization C. Corporation
B. Capitalism D. Production
31. Under the economic model of criminal behavior, what is the primary
consideration in involving oneself in criminal activity?
A. Satisfaction from the crime C. The availability of target
B. The expected gains D. Easy means of escape
32. This pertains to the group of people under the Marxist socialist system who
are composed of the inferior class.
A. Bourgeoisie C. Peasants
B. Proletariat D. Capitalist
33. It is a political pamphlet by the German philosophers Karl
Marx and Friedrich Engels which described the way of life under the capitalist
system.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Condition of working Class in England
B. Moral Insanity D. Communist Manifesto
34. According to this theory, criminality is a function brought about by
inequities found in the capitalist system.
A. Economic Model of Criminal Behavior
B. Friedrich Engel Theory
C. Karl Marx Theory
D. Willem A. Bonger Theory
35. It refers to the group of people under the capitalist society as the owners of
the means of production who has the power to control the production of goods.
B. Proletariat D. Capitalism
36. A term used to describe persons who were normal in all respects except
that something was wrong with the part of the brain that regulates affective
responses.
A. Moral Insanity C. Aura Epileptica
B. Criminal Responsibility D. Premenstrual Syndrome
37. The following are three (3) distinct areas of study biosocial theory, EXCEPT:
A. hormonal C. biochemical factors
B. neurological dysfunction D. genetic influences
38. Under the theory of Karl Marx, this refers to the relationship that exist
among the people producing goods and services.
A. Productive Business C. Productive Sources
B. Productive Relations D. Productive Goods
39. It argues that anyone facing such an overwhelming, negative labeling social
reaction will eventually become more like the label because that is the only way
out of their identify formation.
A. Differential Identification Theory C. Social Control Theory
40. It refers to any of several psychological disorders of mood characterized
usually by alternating episodes of depression and mania.
A. Delusion C. Dementia praecox
B. Manic depression D. Schizophrenia
41. What is the other term of schizophrenia?
A. Bipolar disorder C. Delusion
B. Dementia praecox D. Manic depression
42. According to this theory, the changes or modification of the “bio”, “psycho”,
and the “socio” component of the person affect his/her behavior.
A. Biopsychosocial Model C. Biological Theory
B. Psychological Theory D. Sociological theory
43. It is a neurological dysfunction that prevents an individual from learning to
his or her potential;
A. Learning disability C. Manic depression
B. Schizophrenia D. Delusion
44. An explanation for crime and deviance that holds that people pursue
criminal or deviant behavior to the extent that they identify themselves with
real or imaginary people from whose perspective their criminal or deviant
behavior seems acceptable.
A. Differential Identification Theory C. Neutralization Theory
responses.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Moral Disorder
B. Moral Insanity D. Brain Disorder
46. It pertains to the homicidal impulse characterized by a strange morbid
sensation, beginning in some part of the body and mounting to the brain
preceding an attack of epilepsy.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Aura Epileptica
47. It refers to onset of the menstrual cycle that triggers excessive amounts of
the female sex hormones, which affect antisocial, aggressive behavior.
A. Premenstrual Syndrome C. Battered Child Syndrome
B. Post-Traumatic Stress Syndrome D. Battered Woman Syndrome
48. Physiognomy deals with the study of?
A. Brain B. Mind C. Skull D. Facial feature
49. A medical diagnosis based on evidence indicating that the child has been
subjected to a pattern of serious and unexplained abuse.
50. A psychological term used to describe women who are stuck within or have
recently left a violent relationship characterized by the cycle of violence.
51. It is the stage of abuse which reinforces the woman’s hope that the
relationship will get better or is at least salvageable.
A. Tension Stage C. Honeymoon Stage
B. Violence Stage D. Explosion
52. It is in this stage that the abuser is often very loving and remorseful.
Promises are made by the batterer that he will not violently abuse the woman
again.
A. Tension Stage C. Explosion
B. Violence Stage D. Loving Contrition Stage
53. It is an emotional reaction which falls between baby blues and postpartum
depression.
B. Postpartum Stress Syndrome D. Battered Woman Syndrome
54. Who among of the following is not a proponent of strain theory?
A. Sutherland C. Durkheim
B. Merton D. Agnew
55. This theory viewed that some people may actually initiate the confrontation
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Active precipitation theory
B. Passive precipitation theory D. High risk lifestyle theory
56. This theory argues that criminal activity occurs when an individual's
attachment to society is weakened. This attachment depends on the strength of
social bonds that hold people to society.
57. During this stage of violence, relatively minor incidents increase the tension
in the relationship which culminate the eruption of violence.
A. Tension Building Stage C. Explosion
58. It refers to an emotional reaction which is also known as Adjustment
Disorder.
B. Battered Woman Syndrome D. Postpartum Stress Syndrome
59. A common temporary psychological state right after childbirth when a new
mother may have sudden mood swings, feeling very happy, then very sad, cry
for no apparent reason, feel impatient, unusually irritable, restless, anxious,
lonely and sad.
A. Baby Blues C. Adjustment Disorder
B. Postpartum Depression D. Postpartum Stress Syndrome
60. A complex mix of physical, emotional, and behavioral changes that happen
in a woman after giving birth associated with feelings of sadness, anxiety
(worry) and tiredness that last for a long time after giving birth.
61. A stress usually characterized by feelings of anxiety and self-doubt. The
woman wants to become a perfect mother and wife, but at the same time she
feels exhausted and overwhelmed.
62. What precipitation occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or
fighting words, or even attacks first the offenders?
A. Passive precipitation C. High risk lifestyle
B. Active precipitation D. Victim precipitation
63. A syndrome that does not establish the culpability of any particular person
but rather indicates that a child found with serious, repeated injuries has not
suffered those injured by accidental means.
64. It suggests that people who obey the law simply to avoid punishment or
who have outlooks mainly characterized by self-interest are more likely to
commit crimes than those who view the law as something that benefits all of
society and who honor the rights of others;
A. Psychodynamic theory C. Moral Development Theory
B. Social learning theory D. Cognitive theory
65. What is the most basic human drive present at birth?
A. Thanatos B. Eros C. Oral D. Anal
66. It is the theory which holds that crime is an outcome of class struggle and
that crime is defined by those in power.
A. Critical Feminist Theory C. Marxist Criminology
B. Social Reality of Crime Theory D. Conflict Theory
67. This theory view crime as function of the capitalist mode of production in
which the rich use the fear of crime as a tool to maintain their control over
society.
68. It focuses on the critical analysis of communication and language in legal
codes. Those in power use their own language to define crime and law while
excluding or dismissing those who are in opposition
A. Conflict Theory C. Post Modern Theory
B. Left Realism Theory D. Marxist Criminology
69. According to this theory, crime is defined as the application of harm to
others and the act of making people “criminals” is a crime.
A. Institutive-Constitutive Theory C. Post Modern Theory
B. Left Realism Theory D. Conflict Theory
70. According to this theory, street criminals prey on the poor, thus making the
poor doubly abused, first by the capitalist system and then by the members of
their own class.
A. Conflict Theory C. Critical Feminist Theory
71. A theory which describes a communist form of government in which the
power of the government is absolute and it controls the behavior and actions of
its populace.
A. Conservatism C. Radicalism
B. Liberalism D. Left Realism
72. This theory explains that people are naturally creative and freedom-loving
in which they are able to do as they please without interference by anyone
thereby resulting to moral deterioration and high crime rates as a function of
survival.
A. Conflict Theory C. Radicalism Theory
B. Post Modern Theory D. Left Realism Theory
73. This assumes that the ideal society is one in which there is equality of
opportunity and a general consensus to accept differences in rewards as the
outcomes of fair completion.
74. Mr. X was a member of the known Sputnik Gang as also an associate of
mayor Tumutumba. Because of this, he doesn’t fear if he will be caught doing
something against the law. What theory best explain this?
A. Conservatism Theory C. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Liberalism Theory D. Left Realism Theory
75. These ideologies assume that the ideal society is one in which authority is
unquestioned. The hierarchy of wisdom and virtue is accepted by all as based
on recognizing natural inequalities.
76. What precipitation occurs when the victim exhibits some personal
characteristics that unknowingly either threatens or encourages the attacker?
A. Active precipitation C. High risk lifestyle
B. Victim precipitation D. Passive precipitation
77. Criminality, according to this view, cannot be attributed to a single cause,
nor does it represent a single underlying tendency because people are
influenced by different factors as they mature.
A. Age-Graded Theory C. Latent Trait Theory
B. Interactional Theory D. Life Course Theory
78. This theory holds that, commitment and attachment to conventional

institutions, activities and beliefs insulate youth from delinquency.
A. Social Development Model C. Latent Trait Theory
79. This theory explains that if one of the members of the gang was killed and
the other members knew who killed their co-member then; there is a big
possibility that this gang will join forces to revenge against the killer, because
each member of the gang feels that they are one family within the group.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Moral Insanity D. Left Realism Theory
80. According to this theory, deviance increases when there is control deficit
and with excessive control. Control imbalance represents a potential to commit
crime and deviance
A. Social Interactional Theory C. Control Imbalance Theory
B. Control Balance Theory D. Life Course Theory
81. The type of crime committed by a certain individual is in consonance with
his age or his age governs/dictates what type of crime to be committed by him.
This can be best explain by _________________.
A. Age-Graded Theory C. Aging out process
B. Interactional Theory D. Spontaneous Remission
82. This theory explains that weak bonds lead kids to develop friendships with
deviant peers and get involved in delinquency
83. As people are into the process of transition-moving from one stage to
another stage of life like from adolescents to adulthood, along the way, he or
she may experience some disruption in any of the stages which can lead to
criminal behavior. This can be best explained by __________.
A. Life Course Theory C. Interactional Theory
B. Social Development Model D. Age-Graded Theory
84. This theory claims that people do not change, instead criminal
opportunities change. Early social control like proper parenting can reduce
criminal propensity.
85. A stage of development experienced only by female children and occurs
when a girl notices the differences in male and female anatomy and longs to
have a penis of her own.
A. Identity Fusion C. Identity Crisis
B. Penis Envy D. Penis Envy Theory
86. This theory argued that the involvement in criminal activities is increased
when women have different opportunities. If female opportunity, efficiency and
social communication are increased, then the rate of criminality increases
accordingly.
A. Opportunity Theory C. Critical Feminist Theory
B. Marginalization Theory D. Theory of Masculinity
87. This theory holds that criminality among women is the result of gender
inequality characterized by male supremacy and the effort of the male to
control female sexuality.
A. Theory of Penis Envy C. Critical Feminist Theory
88. Argued that women are involved in crime due to the increasing
participation of women in social movements which changed role of female in
family and the feelings of independence in her work and thought.
89. It refers to the quality or condition of a female being masculine or having
the characteristic of the male sex.
A. Bisexuality C. Feminism
B. Marginality D. Masculinity
90. The term applied to the crime carried out by women whose office jobs can
be characterized as being set on a low to medium level.
A. White Collar Crime C. Blue Collar Crime
B. Pink Collar Crime D. Marginal Crimes
91. According to this theory, women are motivated to commit crime as a
rational response to poverty and economic uncertainty that they perceive.
92. It mean getting involved with deviant peer groups, just “hanging out”, or
frequenting bars until late into the night and drinking heavily.
A. High risk lifestyle C. Victim precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Passive precipitation
93. In this theory, Sigmund Freud proposes that very young girls feel deprived
and envious that they do not have a penis.
A. Marxist Feminist Theory C. Feminism Theory
B. Theory of Penis Envy D. Masculinity Theory
94. Who first presented victim precipitation theory and applies only to violent
victimization.
A. Hans Von Hentig C. Benjamin Mendelson
B. Lawrence Kohlberg D. Gabriel Tarde
95. According to this theory, the fundamental causes of crime are poverty, lack
of education, absence of marketable skills, and subcultural values.
A. Culture Deviance Theory C. Social Structure Theory
B. Social Disorganization Theory D. Concentric Zones Theory
96. This theory asserts that a person's residential location is a substantial
factor in shaping the likelihood that that person will become involved in illegal
activities
A. Social Disorganization Theory C. Social Structure Theory
B. Concentric Zones Theory D. Culture Deviance Theory
97. This theory states that the zones closest to the inner city had the highest
prevalence of social ills, notably, unemployment, poverty, reliance on social
assistance, and rates of disease.
98. This contends that certain classes are denied legitimate access to culturally
determined goals and opportunities, and the resulting frustration results in
illegitimate activities or rejection of the society’s goal.
A. Strain Theory C. Social Learning Theory
B. Differential Association Theory D. Culture Deviance Theory
99. It assumes that persons who become criminal do so because of contacts’

with criminal patterns and isolation from non-criminal patterns.
A. Strain Theory C. Culture Deviance Theory
B. Social Learning Theory D. Differential Association Theory
100. What attachment affects the capacity to be affectionate and to develop an

intimate relationship with others?
A. Emotional bond C. Organic solidarity
B. Anxious attachment D. Cortical arousal
NAGA COLLEGE FOUNDATION
CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION DEPARMENT
M.T. Villanueva Avenue, Naga City
GEC - ETHICS FINALS
Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED AND GOODLUCK!
1. It refers to the matters such as the good thing that we should pursue and the bad thing that we
should avoid.
a. Aesthetics c. Technique
b. Philosophy d. Ethics
2. It refers to a behavior that is a self-serving desire, even if one does not acknowledge it or is even
conscious of it.
3. It comes from the greek word aesthesis meaning sense or feeling. It concerns itself with the value
of beauty and ethics, which concerns itself with the value of human actions.
a. Aesthetics c. Asthetics
b. Aisthethics d. Asthesis
4. It has an idea that one is obliged to obey his creator.

5. Concerned with right and wrong actions, but those which might be considered not quite grave
enough to belong to a discussion on ethics
6. Refers to the different rules and regulations that are posited or put forward by an authority figure
that requires our compliance
7. Refers to the proper (right way) of doing things

8. One is torn between choosing one of two goods or choosing between the lesser of two evils
9. When a person is an observer who makes an assessment on the actions or behavior of someone,
she/he is a making a _______________.
10. When one is placed in a situation and confronted by the choice of what act to perform
11. A situation that calls for moral valuation.

12. Study of ethics that reports how people, particularly groups, make their moral valuations without
making any judgment either for or against these valuations.
a. Normative Study c. Philosophical Study
b. Descriptive Study d. None of these
13. It prescribes that we should make our end, our own interests as the single overriding concern.
14. According to him, “the unexamined life is not worth living for man.”
a. Socrates c. Aristotle
b. Plato d. Kant
15. It is a major branch of philosophy which focuses on the study of value or quality. It covers the
analysis and employment of concepts such as good, evil, right, wrong, and responsibility.
a. Ethics c. Ethics and Values
b. Morality d. Moral Standards
16. Are norms that individuals or groups have about the kind of actions believed to be morally right or
wrong, as well as the values placed on what we believed to be morally good or morally bad?
A. Ethics B. Morality C. Moral Standards D. Value
17. A standards by which we judge manners to be good or bad; normally dictated by a socio-economic
elite.
A. Moral Standards B. Etiquette C. Legal D. Aesthetics
18. A major areas in the study of ethics that concerning what a person is obligated (or permitted) to do
in a specific situation or a particular domain of action.
these
19. A major areas in the study of ethics that concerning the theoretical meaning and reference of moral
propositions, and how their truth values (if any) can be determined.
these
20. A situations where persons, who are called “moral agents” in which there is a choice to be made
between two options, neither of which resolves the situation in an ethically acceptable fashion. It
involves human actions which have moral implications
A. Moral Dilemmas B. Ethical Dilemmas C. Dilemma D. both a and b
21. Rules by which we make decisions about right and wrong, should and shouldn't, good and bad.
They also tell us which are more or less important.
A. Value B, Ethics C. Moral D. Habit
22. It a general rules about actions or behaviors.

A. Value B. Norms C. Moral D. Moral Standards
23. It refers to that quality of goodness or badness in a human act. It is not an imagined quality merely
supposed to be found in human acts.
A. Value B. Norms C. Morality D. Moral Standards
24. A major areas in the study of ethics that concerning the practical means of determining a moral
course of action.
A. Normative Ethics B. Applied Ethics C. Meta-Ethics D. Casuists
25. Ethics is also referred to as what?

A. Culture B. A way of life C. Moral Philosophy D. None of these
Test II. Identification. Identify what is being asked. Choose your answer from the box below and
write it at the back of the answer sheet provided. Answers may be repeated twice or even thrice.
Moral Issue Moral Decision
Etiquette Moral Judgment
Moral Dilemma
1. Always say thank you when someone does a kindness to you. (Etiquette)
2. You’re walking through a store and see a wallet lying on the floor. Are you going to claim it or
turn it over to a store security? (Moral Issue)
3. Excuse yourself if you burp, sneeze, cough or fart. Best excuse yourself and step away.
(Etiquette)
4. Fanny and her classmates are assigned by their teacher to buy Christmas Party Gifts. Her
classmates keep all complimentary gift and ask Fanny not to tell the teacher. Fanny eventually
agreed. (Moral Decision)
5. Identify yourself when making a phone call to someone not a close friend or relative.
(Etiquette)
6. You are driving a car in the fog and you lost your brake. Suddenly there are 5 people standing
in your lane. There is one person standing in the other lane. Should you swerve and hit the one
person. (Moral Dilemma)
7. Should I get a job or rob a people? (Moral Issue)
8. She is a bad woman for having two kids with two father. (Moral Judgment)
9. Sitting and acting like a fine lady while having a dinner in a fine dining restaurant. (Etiquette)
10. He is a bad student for cheating in an exam. (Moral Judgment)
1. A doctor of Roman Catholic Church, Dominican friar who created Summa Theologiae
2. When was the OPLAN Exodus happened?
a. January 25, 2015 c. May 27, 2018
b. October 13, 2017 d. February 15, 1748
3. It refers to the rules of law to be communicated to the people involved in order to enforce them
and to better ensure compliance
4. He wrote about the greatest happiness principle of ethics
a. Zulkifli bun Hir c. Jeremy Bentham
b. Jeremy Mill d. John Stuart Mill
5. A Malaysian terrorist and bomb-maker who had a $5 million bounty on his head and he is the
one of the subject of the warrant of arrest.
a. Zulkifli bun Hir c. Zulkifli bin Hir
b. Zulkifli ben Her d. Merwen
6. ____________ refers to all instances wherein human beings construct and enforce law in their
communities
a. Divine Law c. Natural Law
b. Human Law d. Eternal Law
7. John Stuart Mill was born in ____________.
8. Also known as Anti-wire tapping law
a. RA 4201 c. RA 9171
b. RA 9372 d. RA 4200
9. Is an ethical theory that determines right from wrong by focusing on outcomes. It is a form of
consequentialism.
10. One of the four notions of causes, which refers that all creations takes on a particular shape or
form
11. It refers to the chance it has of being followed by sensations of same kind
b. Purity d. Extent
12. This refers to the usefulness of the consequences of one’s action and behavior.
13. Jeremy Bentham was born on ____________.
a. February 14, 2020 c. February 15, 1848
b. February 15, 1748 d. February 15, 1948
14. One of the four notions of causes, which says that there is something which brings about the
presence of another being.
15. What is the two sovereign masters of utilitarianism
a. Pain and Pleasure c. Happy and sad
b. Pain and Happiness d. Pain and Pressure
16. Jeremy Bentham was born in ____________.
17. Framework for evaluating pleasure and pain
b. Purity d. Extent
18. Who is the speaker of the house of representative, proposing a bill which would amend the
country’s family code, allowing the legalization of same sex unions
19. It refers to what is good for the community as well as our own good
a. Natural Law c. Law
b. Uncommon Good d. Common Good
20. The divine wisdom that directs each being toward its proper end can be called the ________.
21. It is an ordinance of reason for the common good, promulgated by the one who is in charge of
the community.
a. Natural Law c. Eternal Law
22. It is the ‘telos’, this is what should happen if we do the right things.
a. Efficient Cause c. Purpose
b. Final Cause d. Material Cause
23. The class of normative ethical theories holding that the consequences of one's conduct are the
ultimate basis for any judgment about the rightness or wrongness of that conduct.
24. It refers to the motivation of our actions as guided by our avoidance of pain and our desire for
pleasure. It is like saying that in our everyday actions, we do what is pleasurable and we do not
do what is painful.
a. Principle c. Consequentialism
b. Utility d. Principle of Utility
25. It is one of the variables or circumstances that Jeremy Bentham formulated the Felicific
Calculus. It means how soon will the pleasure occur?
a. Propinquity/Remoteness c. Duration
b. Fecundity d. Intensity .
Test II. True or False. Write the whole word TRUE, if the statement is correct and if it is FALSE
correct the underlined word. Write your answers at the BACK of your answer sheets.
26. An excessive quantity of what is otherwise pleasurable might result in happiness. PAIN
27. In Plato’s work, The Republic, it is often supposed that Plato is trying to envision the ideal
society. TRUE
28. The Principle of Greatest Happiness refers to the motivation of our actions as guided by our
avoidance of pain and desire for pleasure. UTILITY
29. Utilitarianism is intended with the best consequence for the highest number of people. TRUE
30. Natural Laws are descriptive; as they tell us how we ought to behave. TRUE
31. Reason is the ultimate GOAL of the person’s actions. TO DO GOOD
32. A bad action is one in which the natural cause or purpose is achieved. NOT ACHIEVE
33. In human beings, unnatural inclination to engage in the sexual act and to reproduce.
NATURAL
34. There are four parts to this voluminous work of Aquina’s Summa Theologiae. THREE
35. For Aristotle the outer principle of human nature is reason. INNER PRINCIPLE
Test III. Identification. Write N if the statement is natural, write UN if the statement is unnatural and
UL if the statement describes utilitarianism.
36. Marijuana can cure some diseases, therefore let us all use marijuana. UN
37. You are a doctor at a busy hospital. Every day you must turn a sick patient away because you
don’t have enough beds to accommodate them. UL
38. Jovie used to have drinking spree with her friends every night because he see it likeness to
others. UN
39. Ana was drowning. She is a good woman with 4 kids, neighbors love her, and she helps lots of
people. UL
40. Janine, a 25 year old woman, is acting like a lady. N
Test III. Essay/Enumeration/Identification: Write at the back portion of your answer sheet.
41- 43. Give the three principles that serve as the basic axioms of utilitarianism?
1. Pleasure or Happiness Is the Only Thing That Truly Has Intrinsic Value.
2. Actions Are Right Insofar as They Promote Happiness, Wrong Insofar as They Produce
Unhappiness.
3. Everyone's Happiness Counts Equally.
44. This philosophy of utilitarianism took for its "fundamental axiom" that.
“it is the greatest happiness of the greatest number that is the measure of right and wrong".
45. Humans are unique and we are __________ with other beings and other animals.
Common
46 – 50. What are the natural inclinations of human nature? Explain each.
1. Self-preservation
- natural inclination to take care of one’s health or not to kill or put one’s self in danger.
2. Just dealing with others
- Treat others with the same respect that we accord ourselves.
3. Propagation of human species
- The reproductive organ is designed to reproduce and propagate human species.
4. Knowledge
- Natural inclination to learn
1. The maxim or personal rule that I live by were adopted by everyone of their own maxim.
2. He was a German enlightenment philosopher who wrote one of the most important works on
moral philosophy, the Groundwork Towards a Metaphysics of Moral.
3. It means an organism has the ability to perceive and navigate its external environment.
4. Who is the DepEd secretary who launch the implementing guidelines of the children’s
television act of 1997?
5. The capacity to act according to principles that are determine by ourselves.
6. He was born in Macedonia and studied philosophy under Plato in Athens.
7. It is the excellent way of doing things. Also known as Arete in Greeks.
8. He was the brightest among Plato’s student and also known to be the tutor of Alexander the
Great.
9. It will give us set or instructions on how to make a list of duties or moral commands.
10. Who was the taxi driver in Baguio who returned a suit case who his Australian passenger.
11. Heteronomy comes from the Greek word _________ means other.
b. Deon d. Telos
12. It refers to the knowledge of determining the appropriate action in a given situation.
13. Greek word for purpose or aim for which all acts seek to achieve.
b. Deon d. Telos
b. Deontology d. Virtue
15. The middle, intermediate or ______ for the greeks that is aimed at by a morally virtuous
person.
b. Deon d. Telos
16. A moral theory that evaluates action that are done because of duty.
17. It is freely given as an unrequired gift for one’s service or effort.
18. Deontology comes from the Greek word ______ which means being necessary.
b. Deon d. Telos
19. It is the ability of a person to act based on her intentions and mental states.
20. It means other law or a simple legislation and imposition of law by an eternal authority.
21. It provides the “form” of a moral theory and to supply a procedure and the criteria for
determining one’s own, the rules and moral commands.
22. It means self-law or no interference or control from others.
23. Consist of a “rule” that we live by in our day to day-to-day basis or the Standard Operating
Procedure (SOP).
24. Is an excellence in knowing the right conduct in carrying out a particular act.
25. Older individuals would agree that the highest purpose and the ultimate good of man is his
happiness or for the Greeks they called it ___________.
a. Eudaimonia c. Arete
b. Telos d. Mesotes
27. Refers to the faculty to intervene in the world, to act in a manner that is consistent with our
reason.
28. ___________ is the knowledge of the general principles that constitute reality.
29. It is the ethical framework that is concerned with understanding the good as a matter of
developing the virtuous character of a person.
30. It identifies the particular duties in a straight forward manner that the adherents of the theory
must follow.
right or wrong.
(man-made).
behavior.
praise.
delusions.
yourself.
his undoing.
their well-being.
and attention.
is unavoidable.
lessons learned.
dignity and rights.
society.
activities.
incarcerated.
with animals, etc.
succeed.
relate to others.
present.
Prepared by:

Professor



Brigadier General).
degree
(PSOSEC/DSC)

d) All of the above
permanent.
training
benefits.

a. 25% c. 10%
b. 5% d. 20%
the PNP?

in the AFP?

d. All of the above
a. Mayor c. COP
C. Demotion D. AWOL
A. 20 yrs B. 10 yrs
A. NAPOLCOM B. DND




a. high school
c. 3rd year college
d. College Degree

of the PNP.
1998.
a. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 5815 d. R.A. 9657
a. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 5815 d. R.A. 9657
a. R.A 6975 c. R.A. 7610

c. Supreme Court

a. search b. raid
point.
custody.

a. day time
b. night time
d. weekdays
accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.

a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45


guilt.

a. intent b. motive


remain anonymous.

b) Right to counsel
d) Right to bail

of these

significant manner.
wear other color.
investigator.
arrested.
delay.
Nothing follows
KEY TO CORRECTION
1. C 26. B 51. T 76.

2. D 27. C 52. F 77.
3. D 28. A 53. F 78.
4. C 29. C 54. F 79.
5. A 30. B 55. F 80.
6. A 31. D 56. T 81.
7. A 32. C 57. F 82.
8. D 33. D 58. T 83.
9. B 34. C 59. F 84.
10. C 35. B 60. F 85.
11. D 36. D 61. 86.
12. D 37. A 62. 87.
13. D 38. C 63. 88.
14. B 39. C 64. 89.
15. A 40. A 65. 90.
16. A 41. D 66. 91.
17. A 42. B 67. 92.
18. B 43. C 68. 93.
19. A 44. T 69. 94.
20. A 45. T 70. 95.
21. A 46. F 71. 96.
22. D 47. F 72. 97.
23. B 48. T 73. 98.
24. A 49. T 74. 99.
25. A 50. F 75. 100.
CDI 2 – Final Exam
Mr X is an employee of Lucky Trading engaged in electronics and DVD business, he was attracted to one DVD which is a hot buy on
that day, he wanted to see for his own consumption the content of such DVD, he decided to conceal and steal the DVD. Mr X was
craved for that DVD because it is_____________.
Concealable
Removable
Enjoyable
Valuable
An art or process which deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect,
preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice.
Custodial investigation
Crime science
Dactyloscopy
Criminal investigation
Pedro and Juan are both employee of Goodluck Delivery, upon passing thru the x-ray machine of one balik-bayan box, they learn that it
contains electronic gadgets such as cellular phone, laptop, gaming devices, etc, they decided to steal the cellular phone to sell, they craved
for such items because it is __________.
Enjoyable
Available
Disposable
valuable
Shall assume full responsibility over the crime scene during the conduct of CSI.
Criminal
Witness
A person who is in-charge with the duty of carrying out the objectives of criminal investigation.
First responder
Witness
James is a juvenile offender, almost of his friends has a brand-new cellular phone. One day when James is in a restaurant, he noticed a
lady put her latest model of Samsung cellular phone on top of the table while enjoying her meal. James craved to steal that phone, so
he sneakily went from behind and able to bet the phone and he hastily went out of said restaurant. James was attracted to get by phone
because it is ___________.
Concealable
Disposable
Valuable
Removable
It is the conduct of processes, more, particularly the recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and documentation and
Interview of witnesses and the arrest of suspect/s at the crime scene.
Scene of crime
Crime scene investigation
Crime scene management
Scene of crime operation
To carry out the many responsibilities assigned to an investigator, deductive logic is utilized. In this aspect the logical progression points
to the sequence of events from generic to specific.
Job of Crime Investigators
Job of Investigator-on-Case
Job of First Responder
All of the above
They are professional thieves, in the sense that they are highly skilled; requiring unusual manual dexterity, knowledge of human
behavior and precision teamwork.
Group of organized thieves
Pickpockets
Pickpocketing
Shoplifters
Armando wanted to have more inheritance share from her grandmother than his other relatives, by means of intimidation he compel his
grandmother to sign and execute a document in favor of him. Armando is guilty of _______.
Grave Threats
Robbery with violence or Intimidation of Persons
Robbery in band
Intimidating a person
It is an entire and continuous cessation of the heart action and flow of blood in the whole vascular system.
Cessation of respiration
Death from syncope
Cessation of Heart action and circulation
Apparent death
In gathering information, Birth Certificate is considered as _________?

Public record
Private record
Modus operandi file
None of the above
The places where the criminal, victim and witness moved during the commission of the crime is a __________?
Continuing crime
Crime scene
Crime scene boundaries
All of the above
The following are the purpose of cordoning (police line) the area of the crime scene, except.
Determine the boundaries of the crime scene
Secure the crime scene
Preserved the integrity of the crime scene
Collect and preserved the evidence
Based on the results of the initial investigation conducted, the investigator shall conduct ________________ to identify and apprehend
suspect/s.
Police Investigation
Police Operation
Surveillance
All of the above
In identifying the suspect can be done through the following, except.

Eyewitness testimony
Association of evidence
Confession
Sworn statement of complainant/s and witnesses must be taken immediately due ______.
To meet the prescription period
To the incident is still fresh in their minds
To avoid being influenced of the opinion of other people
All of the above
The following are the main objective of a police investigator to gather all facts, except_________.
Prove by evidence the guilt of the suspect/s.
Identify the criminal
Convict the criminal
Locate and apprehend the suspect/s.
Crime is an act or omission punishable by law. It is understood that act is punishable under the Revised Penal Code while omission is
punishable by the ________.
Republic Act
Specialized Laws
Presidential Decree
Special Laws
A wound that is produced by the penetration of a sharp pointed-pointed and sharped-edge instrument like a knife, saber, dagger and
scissors.
Penetrating wound
Stab wound
Puncture wound
All of the above
These wounds are usually the result of blunt trauma or friction with other surfaces that do not break through the skin.
Abrasions
Lacerations
Contusions
Non-penetration wounds
It refers to damage to the body caused by external force

Mutilation
Wound
Injury
Inflammation
Randy and his three (3) friends plan to rob a pawnshop, on the occasion of their execution, one of the customers in the pawnshop is a
Police. However, Randy was able to shoot the police and killed prompting the group of Randy to abort their plan. Is Randy and his group
guilty of a crime of Robbery with violence or Intimidation of persons?
No, because they failed to execute the robbery.
Yes, because they executed it but was aborted only when they killed police.
No, the case must be Homicide only
Yes, because they planned to rob the pawnshop.
A public school has its store house beside the Industrial Arts building, where all the school supplies are kept. Ramon, a janitor of said
school and his four (4) friends robbed the said store house. Is Ramos and his friend guilty of the crime of _______.
Robbery
Robbery in band
Robbery in uninhabited place and by a band
Robbery in the dependencies of building
A right-angle approach of the bullet will make the wound of entrance circular shape, except when the missile is deformed or the fire is
in contact or near.
Range
Direction of fire
Deformity of the bullet that entered
Acute angular approach of the bullet
It is a criminal act of disabling, disfiguring or cutting off or making useless one of the members (leg, arms, hand, foot, eye) of another.
Serious physical injuries
Mayhem
Mutilation
Physical injuries
It is a cause of death in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced below normal working
level.
Death from coma
Somatic death
Death from Asphyxia
Death from syncope
When the accused died during the pendency of his trial for “Non-payment of just debt”, the criminal and civil liability must
_____________.
Be assumed by the heirs
Be extinguished by death
Be archive by the court
All of the above
It is a kind of death wherein the condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the
vital functions of the body on account of disease, external stimulus or other forms of influence.
Apparent death
Cellular death
Clinical death
Coma
If in consequences of the physical injuries inflicted, the injured person shall become insane, imbecile, impotent or blind the acts committed
are considered as Serious Physical Injuries.
True, because it is stated in the Revised Penal Code
False, it must be Frustrated Homicide or Murder
True, because the injuries are severe
False, because the injured can still recover from illness
One of the characteristics of puncture wound is that the opening on the skin is narrower and may become unnoticeable because of clotted
blood and elasticity of the skin.
True, because puncture wounds are cause by a sharp pointed object
False, because it can be noticeable due to signed of blood clot.
True, because it penetrates the skin and make a deep wound
False, because it cannot be determined if it is a wound
A blow on the forehead may cause contusion at the region of the eyeball because of the fracture on the papyraceous bone forming the root of
the orbit.
Contre-coup injury
Extensive injury
Locus minoris Resistencia
Coup injury
When a defense wounds are present and the incised wounds are deep, multiple and involved both accessible and non-accessible parts of the
body to the hands of the victim is called __________.
Suicidal wounds
Homicidal wounds
Accidental incised wounds
All of the above
It appears during the later stage of its formation when the blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused into the tissues of
the body.
Hypostatic lividity
Diffusion lividity
Livor Mortis
Cadaveric spasm
If in the crime scene, the cadaver tightly grasped the wounding weapon, it may indicate that the incident happened is a _____________.
Homicide
Murder
Suicide
Drowning
This is a kind of evidence that encompasses any and all objects that can establish that a crime has been committed or can provide a link between
a crime and its victim or a crime and its perpetrator
Associated evidence
Physical evidence
All of the above
It is legally submitted to a competent tribunal as a means of ascertaining the truth of any alleged matter of fact under investigation before it.
Evidence
Physical evidence
Associated evidence
It is a flow of responsibility of transporting evidence from crime scene to Crime Laboratory.

Evidence custodian
Chain of custody
Scene of Crime Operation.
It is a Protocols in Police Investigation that the Police Station in an area where the crime incident was committed, shall immediately undertake
the necessary investigation and processing of the crime scene
Territorial Unit
Jurisdictional investigation
Area of Jurisdiction
Area of Responsibility
It refers to the investigation of the dead body which is performed by a Medico Legal Officer or by a trained physician employing recognized
dissection procedure and techniques.
Non-official autopsy
Crime scene investigation stage
Official autopsy
Autopsy stage
The following are the points to be considered which may infer the position of the body at the time of death. Which is not?
Posture of the body when found
Post-mortem hypostasis
Cadaveric spasm
Entomology of the cadaver
It is a modification of the putrefaction process characterized by the dehydration of the cadaveric tissues.
Mummification
Putrefaction
Maceration
Saponification
It refers to the modification of putrefaction process which involves hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fatty issues into a yellowish greasy, rancid,
wax-like substance called adipocere.
Mummification
Putrefaction
Saponification
Maceration
Pedro wanted to burned the house of Juan his enemy, one evening when the family of Juan is already asleep, Pedro took a rag, soaked into a
gasoline and went into the combustible portion of the house, and when he is on the act of lighting his lighter to burn the rag, he was arrested
by the patrolling barangay tanod. Pedro is liable for the crime of _______.
Frustrated Arson
Attempted Arson
Consummated Arson
Arson
This robbery’s style is based on the moment of surprise and does not require specific planning.
Robbery by ambush
Robbery by raid
Robbery by band
None of the above
It refers to the all-interior courts, corrals, water houses, granaries, barns, coach-houses, stables or other departments or enclosed places
contiguous to the building or edifice, having an interior entrance connected therewith, and which form part of the whole.
Inhabited house/building
Uninhabited house
Dependencies of the house
Private building
A person who enters or remains on the premises of another without effective consent of the owner for the purpose of committing a felony or
theft.
Brigandage
Burglary
Robbers
Opportunistic or amateur robbers.
They are robbers who do not plan their robberies, target low risk victims, do not typically use firearms and work independently.
Unarmed robbers
Street robbers
Opportunistic or amateur robbers
Substance-habituated robbers
Primo, while having a widow shopping inside the mall, he saw an imported chocolate and he cannot resist his urges to steal, when he has the
opportunity, he took and carted away said chocolate for his pleasure gratification. Primo is a _______.
Opportunistic or amateur robber
Kleptomania
Shoplifter
Thieve
The most frequently cited emotional problem associated with shoplifting is ________.
Economic problem
Kleptomania
Depression
Trill-seeking
It refers to theft of a few pieces or a small quantity of a relatively large shipment.
Theft
Robbery
Pilferage
Larceny
It is an act of stealing wallets, passports and sometimes other valuables from people’s clothing and baags as they walk into or in a public
place.
Snatching
Pickpocketing
Dipping
lifting
CRIMINOLOGY 2 Theories of Crime Causation
INSTRUCTION:
2. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer in every number. WRITE the corresponding letter of your answer
on the answer sheet provided.
3. STRICTLY ERASURES and ALTERATIONS ARE NOT ALLOWED.
1. It refers to a theory which claims to be able to determine character,
personality traits and criminality on the basis of the shape of the head?
A. Physiognomy C. Endomorphic
B. Phrenology D. Ectomorphic
2. These theories of criminality basically purport that criminal behavior is the
result of some flaw in the biological makeup of the individual. This refers to:
A. Positivism Theories C. Biological Theories
B. Sociological Theories D. Learning Theories
3. It is an indeterminate factor in mobilizing the criminal act. As each person
has a unique psychological make-up, it follows that only he can achieve a
particular aim in a given environment.
A. Circumstances C. Motive
B. Situation D. Timing
4. This study has linked medical and moral deviance and fused the new
Mendelian laws with the Old biblical injunctions that “the sins of the fathers
shall be visited in the sons.” The study refers to:
A. Sir Jonathan Edwards Family Tree
B. Study of Kallikak Family Tree
C. Study of Juke Family Tree
D. Anthropological Study
5. What is a generic term of crime which is punishable by the special law such
as Republic Act and Presidential Decree?
A. Offense C. Crime
B. Felony D. Misdemeanor
6. The main notion of this school is “Let the punishment fit the criminal.”
A. French school of criminology C. Positive school of criminology
B. Classical school of criminology D. Neo-classical school of criminology
7. It involved weighing of pleasure versus pain?
A. Utilitarian C. Pain and Pleasure Principle
B. Hedonistic Calculus / Utility D. Principle of Utility
8. Who is the main advocate of Classical school?
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Raffaele Garofalo
B. Jeremy Benthan D. Cesare Beccaria
9. What is the fundamental notion of Neo-classical school?
A. Let the children and lunatic criminals be exempted from punishment.
B. Let the punishment fit the crime
C. Let every criminal receive punishment.
D. Let the punishment fit the criminal
10. What perspective claimed that crime is product of socialization or
interaction of one person to other person, and crime is a function of
upbringing, learning and control?
A. Process C. Biological
B. Perspective D. Social
11. According to this theory, potential delinquents and criminals master
techniques that enable them to counterbalance or neutralize conventional
values and drift back and forth between illegitimate and conventional behavior.
12. This principle explains that people’s contacts with their most intimate
social companions – family, friends, and peers – have the greatest influence on
their deviant behavior and attitude development.
A. Criminal behavior is learned.
B. Learning is a by-product of interaction.
C. Learning occurs within intimate groups.
D. Criminal techniques are learned
13. The quotation “Tell me who your friends are and I will tell you who u are”
can be best associated to what theory?
A. Differential Association Theory C. Social Learning Theory
B. Strain Theory D. Culture Deviance Theory
14. It is a theory of learning process and social behavior which proposes that
new behaviors can be acquired by observing and imitating others.
15. What school presumed that criminal behavior is caused by internal and
external factors outside of the individual’s?
A. Neo-classical School C. Chicago School
B. Classical School D. Positivist School
with a unique set of values that clash with the main stream culture. It argues
that offender learn deviant behavior socially through exposure to others and
modelling of other’s action.
A. Differential Association Theory C. Strain Theory
B. Culture Deviance Theory D. Social Learning Theory
17. What perspective expressed that criminal behaviour, was the product of
“unconscious” forces operating within a person’s mind?
A. Biological C. Sociological
B. Psychological D. Physiological
18. According to this theory disorganized areas cannot exert identifies by their
relatively high level of change, fear, instability, poverty, and deterioration and
these factors have direct influence on the areas delinquency rate.
A. Social organization theory
B. Social disorganization theory
C. Differential identification theory
with a unique set of values that clash with the main stream culture;
A. Traits theory C. Culture deviance theory
B. Strain theory D. Social bonding theory
20. This theory proposed that through interaction with others, individuals
learn the values, attitude, techniques and motive for criminal behavior;
21. This theory believe that crime is a product of learning norms, values and
behaviors associated with criminal activity;
A. Traits theory C. Bonding theory
B. Labeling theory D. Social learning
22. This theory proposed that deviance is socially constructed through reaction
instead of action;
A. Social control theory C. Social bonding theory
B. Labeling theory D. Differential identification theory
23. This theory occurs when behavior is reinforced by being either rewarded or
punished while interacting with others;
D. Neutralization theory
24. This theory viewed that process of becoming as a learning experience in
which potential delinquents and criminals master techniques that enable
counterbalance conventional values and drift, back and forth, between
illegitimate and conventional behavior;
A. Neutralization theory C. Social control theory
B. Social bonding theory D. Labeling theory
25. This theory maintained that person pursues criminal behavior to the extent
that it identifies himself with a real or imaginary person from whose
perspective his criminal behavior seems acceptable;
B. Differential reinforcement theory
C. Differential association theory
D. Labeling theory
26. It arose during the French revolution with the modification that children,
lunatics, and others were not legally responsible for their actions;
A. Classical School C. Positive School
B. Neo classical school D. Italian School
27. Political and economic forces as the causes of crimes are under the?
A. Classical perspective C. Conflict perspective
B. Process perspective D. Biological perspective
28. A standard model of decision-making whereby individuals choose between
criminal activity and legal activity on the basis of expected utility from those
acts.
A. Economic Model of Criminal Behavior C. Friedrich Engel Theory
B. Karl Marx Theory D. Willem A. Bonger Theory
29. In this technique of neutralization, the criminal argues that it is unfair for
them to be blamed for the crime and that they are being persecuted or
punished out of spite.
A. Denial of responsibility C. Denial of victim
B. Denial of injury D. Condemnation of Condemners
30. Under the theory of Karl Marx, this pertains to the economic system based
on the private ownership of the means of production and their operation
for profit.
A. Privatization C. Corporation
B. Capitalism D. Production
31. Under the economic model of criminal behavior, what is the primary
consideration in involving oneself in criminal activity?
A. Satisfaction from the crime C. The availability of target
B. The expected gains D. Easy means of escape
32. This pertains to the group of people under the Marxist socialist system who
are composed of the inferior class.
B. Proletariat D. Capitalist
33. It is a political pamphlet by the German philosophers Karl
Marx and Friedrich Engels which described the way of life under the capitalist
system.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Condition of working Class in England
B. Moral Insanity D. Communist Manifesto
34. According to this theory, criminality is a function brought about by
inequities found in the capitalist system.
A. Economic Model of Criminal Behavior
B. Friedrich Engel Theory
C. Karl Marx Theory
D. Willem A. Bonger Theory
35. It refers to the group of people under the capitalist society as the owners of
the means of production who has the power to control the production of goods.
B. Proletariat D. Capitalism
responses.
A. Moral Insanity C. Aura Epileptica
B. Criminal Responsibility D. Premenstrual Syndrome
37. The following are three (3) distinct areas of study biosocial theory, EXCEPT:
A. hormonal C. biochemical factors
B. neurological dysfunction D. genetic influences
38. Under the theory of Karl Marx, this refers to the relationship that exist
among the people producing goods and services.
A. Productive Business C. Productive Sources
B. Productive Relations D. Productive Goods
39. It argues that anyone facing such an overwhelming, negative labeling social
reaction will eventually become more like the label because that is the only way
out of their identify formation.
40. It refers to any of several psychological disorders of mood characterized
usually by alternating episodes of depression and mania.
A. Delusion C. Dementia praecox
B. Manic depression D. Schizophrenia
41. What is the other term of schizophrenia?
A. Bipolar disorder C. Delusion
B. Dementia praecox D. Manic depression
42. According to this theory, the changes or modification of the “bio”, “psycho”,
and the “socio” component of the person affect his/her behavior.
A. Biopsychosocial Model C. Biological Theory
B. Psychological Theory D. Sociological theory
43. It is a neurological dysfunction that prevents an individual from learning to
his or her potential;
A. Learning disability C. Manic depression
B. Schizophrenia D. Delusion
44. An explanation for crime and deviance that holds that people pursue
criminal or deviant behavior to the extent that they identify themselves with
real or imaginary people from whose perspective their criminal or deviant
behavior seems acceptable.
A. Differential Identification Theory C. Neutralization Theory
responses.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Moral Disorder
46. It pertains to the homicidal impulse characterized by a strange morbid
sensation, beginning in some part of the body and mounting to the brain
preceding an attack of epilepsy.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Aura Epileptica
47. It refers to onset of the menstrual cycle that triggers excessive amounts of
the female sex hormones, which affect antisocial, aggressive behavior.
48. Physiognomy deals with the study of?
A. Brain B. Mind C. Skull D. Facial feature
49. A medical diagnosis based on evidence indicating that the child has been
subjected to a pattern of serious and unexplained abuse.
50. A psychological term used to describe women who are stuck within or have
recently left a violent relationship characterized by the cycle of violence.
51. It is the stage of abuse which reinforces the woman’s hope that the
relationship will get better or is at least salvageable.
A. Tension Stage C. Honeymoon Stage
B. Violence Stage D. Explosion
52. It is in this stage that the abuser is often very loving and remorseful.
Promises are made by the batterer that he will not violently abuse the woman
again.
A. Tension Stage C. Explosion
53. It is an emotional reaction which falls between baby blues and postpartum
depression.
54. Who among of the following is not a proponent of strain theory?
A. Sutherland C. Durkheim
B. Merton D. Agnew
55. This theory viewed that some people may actually initiate the confrontation
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Active precipitation theory
B. Passive precipitation theory D. High risk lifestyle theory
56. This theory argues that criminal activity occurs when an individual's
attachment to society is weakened. This attachment depends on the strength of
social bonds that hold people to society.
57. During this stage of violence, relatively minor incidents increase the tension
in the relationship which culminate the eruption of violence.
A. Tension Building Stage C. Explosion
58. It refers to an emotional reaction which is also known as Adjustment
Disorder.
B. Battered Woman Syndrome D. Postpartum Stress Syndrome
59. A common temporary psychological state right after childbirth when a new
mother may have sudden mood swings, feeling very happy, then very sad, cry
for no apparent reason, feel impatient, unusually irritable, restless, anxious,
lonely and sad.
60. A complex mix of physical, emotional, and behavioral changes that happen
in a woman after giving birth associated with feelings of sadness, anxiety
(worry) and tiredness that last for a long time after giving birth.
61. A stress usually characterized by feelings of anxiety and self-doubt. The
woman wants to become a perfect mother and wife, but at the same time she
feels exhausted and overwhelmed.
62. What precipitation occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or
fighting words, or even attacks first the offenders?
A. Passive precipitation C. High risk lifestyle
B. Active precipitation D. Victim precipitation
63. A syndrome that does not establish the culpability of any particular person
but rather indicates that a child found with serious, repeated injuries has not
suffered those injured by accidental means.
64. It suggests that people who obey the law simply to avoid punishment or
who have outlooks mainly characterized by self-interest are more likely to
commit crimes than those who view the law as something that benefits all of
society and who honor the rights of others;
A. Psychodynamic theory C. Moral Development Theory
B. Social learning theory D. Cognitive theory
65. What is the most basic human drive present at birth?
A. Thanatos B. Eros C. Oral D. Anal
66. It is the theory which holds that crime is an outcome of class struggle and
that crime is defined by those in power.
67. This theory view crime as function of the capitalist mode of production in
which the rich use the fear of crime as a tool to maintain their control over
society.
68. It focuses on the critical analysis of communication and language in legal
codes. Those in power use their own language to define crime and law while
excluding or dismissing those who are in opposition
A. Conflict Theory C. Post Modern Theory
69. According to this theory, crime is defined as the application of harm to
others and the act of making people “criminals” is a crime.
A. Institutive-Constitutive Theory C. Post Modern Theory
B. Left Realism Theory D. Conflict Theory
70. According to this theory, street criminals prey on the poor, thus making the
poor doubly abused, first by the capitalist system and then by the members of
their own class.
A. Conflict Theory C. Critical Feminist Theory
71. A theory which describes a communist form of government in which the
power of the government is absolute and it controls the behavior and actions of
its populace.
72. This theory explains that people are naturally creative and freedom-loving
in which they are able to do as they please without interference by anyone
thereby resulting to moral deterioration and high crime rates as a function of
survival.
A. Conflict Theory C. Radicalism Theory
B. Post Modern Theory D. Left Realism Theory
73. This assumes that the ideal society is one in which there is equality of
opportunity and a general consensus to accept differences in rewards as the
outcomes of fair completion.
74. Mr. X was a member of the known Sputnik Gang as also an associate of
mayor Tumutumba. Because of this, he doesn’t fear if he will be caught doing
something against the law. What theory best explain this?
A. Conservatism Theory C. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Liberalism Theory D. Left Realism Theory
75. These ideologies assume that the ideal society is one in which authority is
unquestioned. The hierarchy of wisdom and virtue is accepted by all as based
on recognizing natural inequalities.
76. What precipitation occurs when the victim exhibits some personal
characteristics that unknowingly either threatens or encourages the attacker?
A. Active precipitation C. High risk lifestyle
B. Victim precipitation D. Passive precipitation
77. Criminality, according to this view, cannot be attributed to a single cause,
nor does it represent a single underlying tendency because people are
influenced by different factors as they mature.
A. Age-Graded Theory C. Latent Trait Theory
78. This theory holds that, commitment and attachment to conventional

institutions, activities and beliefs insulate youth from delinquency.
79. This theory explains that if one of the members of the gang was killed and
the other members knew who killed their co-member then; there is a big
possibility that this gang will join forces to revenge against the killer, because
each member of the gang feels that they are one family within the group.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Moral Insanity D. Left Realism Theory
80. According to this theory, deviance increases when there is control deficit
and with excessive control. Control imbalance represents a potential to commit
crime and deviance
A. Social Interactional Theory C. Control Imbalance Theory
B. Control Balance Theory D. Life Course Theory
81. The type of crime committed by a certain individual is in consonance with
his age or his age governs/dictates what type of crime to be committed by him.
This can be best explain by _________________.
A. Age-Graded Theory C. Aging out process
B. Interactional Theory D. Spontaneous Remission
82. This theory explains that weak bonds lead kids to develop friendships with
deviant peers and get involved in delinquency
83. As people are into the process of transition-moving from one stage to
another stage of life like from adolescents to adulthood, along the way, he or
she may experience some disruption in any of the stages which can lead to
criminal behavior. This can be best explained by __________.
A. Life Course Theory C. Interactional Theory
B. Social Development Model D. Age-Graded Theory
84. This theory claims that people do not change, instead criminal
opportunities change. Early social control like proper parenting can reduce
criminal propensity.
85. A stage of development experienced only by female children and occurs
when a girl notices the differences in male and female anatomy and longs to
have a penis of her own.
A. Identity Fusion C. Identity Crisis
B. Penis Envy D. Penis Envy Theory
86. This theory argued that the involvement in criminal activities is increased
when women have different opportunities. If female opportunity, efficiency and
social communication are increased, then the rate of criminality increases
accordingly.
87. This theory holds that criminality among women is the result of gender
inequality characterized by male supremacy and the effort of the male to
control female sexuality.
88. Argued that women are involved in crime due to the increasing
participation of women in social movements which changed role of female in
family and the feelings of independence in her work and thought.
89. It refers to the quality or condition of a female being masculine or having
the characteristic of the male sex.
A. Bisexuality C. Feminism
B. Marginality D. Masculinity
90. The term applied to the crime carried out by women whose office jobs can
be characterized as being set on a low to medium level.
A. White Collar Crime C. Blue Collar Crime
B. Pink Collar Crime D. Marginal Crimes
91. According to this theory, women are motivated to commit crime as a
rational response to poverty and economic uncertainty that they perceive.
92. It mean getting involved with deviant peer groups, just “hanging out”, or
frequenting bars until late into the night and drinking heavily.
A. High risk lifestyle C. Victim precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Passive precipitation
93. In this theory, Sigmund Freud proposes that very young girls feel deprived
and envious that they do not have a penis.
A. Marxist Feminist Theory C. Feminism Theory
B. Theory of Penis Envy D. Masculinity Theory
94. Who first presented victim precipitation theory and applies only to violent
victimization.
A. Hans Von Hentig C. Benjamin Mendelson
B. Lawrence Kohlberg D. Gabriel Tarde
95. According to this theory, the fundamental causes of crime are poverty, lack
of education, absence of marketable skills, and subcultural values.
A. Culture Deviance Theory C. Social Structure Theory
B. Social Disorganization Theory D. Concentric Zones Theory
96. This theory asserts that a person's residential location is a substantial
factor in shaping the likelihood that that person will become involved in illegal
activities
97. This theory states that the zones closest to the inner city had the highest
prevalence of social ills, notably, unemployment, poverty, reliance on social
assistance, and rates of disease.
98. This contends that certain classes are denied legitimate access to culturally
determined goals and opportunities, and the resulting frustration results in
illegitimate activities or rejection of the society’s goal.
A. Strain Theory C. Social Learning Theory
B. Differential Association Theory D. Culture Deviance Theory
99. It assumes that persons who become criminal do so because of contacts’

with criminal patterns and isolation from non-criminal patterns.
A. Strain Theory C. Culture Deviance Theory
B. Social Learning Theory D. Differential Association Theory
100. What attachment affects the capacity to be affectionate and to develop an

intimate relationship with others?
A. Emotional bond C. Organic solidarity
B. Anxious attachment D. Cortical arousal

Reviewer QE

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Reviewer QE

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

FUNDAMENTAL OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

4. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the

9. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…

11. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

17. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

19. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of

21. It means method of operation.

24. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.

28. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:

34. An objective of criminal invstigation.

38. Qualities of good investigator except

43. The explanation of any symbol used to identify objects.

1. C 26. B 51. T 76.

4. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the

9. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…

11. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

17. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

19. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of

21. It means method of operation.

24. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.

28. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:

34. An objective of criminal invstigation.

38. Qualities of good investigator except

43. The explanation of any symbol used to identify objects.

1. C 26. B 51. T 76.

In gathering information, Birth Certificate is considered as _________?

In identifying the suspect can be done through the following, except.

It refers to damage to the body caused by external force

It is a flow of responsibility of transporting evidence from crime scene to Crime Laboratory.

IPSC medium course must not require more than *

50 caliber machine gun is a *

equivalent to hammer down in shotgun *

Safety is paramount, designed and run with due consideration to safety *

ammunition carrying device except *

in feeding and extraction jams we must strike the slide forward *

There are 3 common arm style *

IPSC being freestyle does not require mandatory reloads *

in history pistol shooting each contestant fires *

Allows citizen to own and possess 5 registered firearms *

To register a gun club there must be at least __ license citizen members *

A pistol, revolver and rifles are considered *

Allows citizen to own and possess 10 registered firearms *

Once granted an LTOPF you are now *

five (5) elements of marksmanship, except *

A rifle capable of shooting semi automatically is *

IDPA firearms a re grouped into the following divisions except *

8. a folding shotgun made in south africa *

IPSC long course must not require more than *

IPSC short course must not require more than *

accessories of a shotgun except; *

Allows citizen to own and possess 2 registered firearms *

The following are accessories of firearms except *

IPSC matches are__ competitors must be permitted to solve challenge presented *

A rifle with full automatic bust of fire is *

Senior citizens discount on LTOPF payment *

shooting sport that simulates self-defense scenarios. *

IDPA shooter classification except *

The following are major parts of a firearm except *

PSMOC Minimum distance for paper targets *

Only small arms may be registered by a qualified license citizen *

a type of shotgun ammo used to open doors *

Allows citizen to own and possess more than 15 registered firearms *