Blueprint - English, X

(for March 2024 board exams)

1 Mark 2 Mark 3 Mark 5 Mark 6 Mark

Section Total Marks
Question Question Question Question Question

Discursive
6Q 2Q – – – 10 marks
Passage
A
Case-based
6Q 2Q – – – 10 marks
Factual passage
10Q
B Grammar – – – – 10 marks
(out of 12)

Analytical
– – – 1Q –
Paragraph
C 10 marks
Formal Letter – – – 1Q –

1 poem-based Q
First Flight
– – (1 out of 2)
(Poetry) 4Q 1Q
4Q each
(out of 5) (out of 2)
D First Flight 40 marks
– – 1 extract-based Q
(Prose)
(1 out of 2)
Footprints 2Q 4Q each 1Q
– –
Without Feet (out of 3) (out of 2)

TOTAL 22Q 4Q 6Q 4Q 2Q 80 marks

 Series WYXZ1/1 SET ~ 1

Roll No. Q.P. Code 2/1/1

Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

NOTE
(I) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| (I) Please check that this question
_w{XV n¥ð 15 h¢ & paper contains 15 printed pages.

(II) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H r Amoa {XE (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand
àíZ-nÌ H moS H mo narjmWu CÎma-nw{ñVH m side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the
Ho _wI-n¥ð na {bI| & answer-book by the candidate.
(III) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| 11 (III) Please check that this question
àíZ h¢ & paper contains 11 questions.

(IV) H¥ n`m àíZ H m CÎma {bIZm ewê H aZo go (IV) Please write down the serial
nhbo, CÎma-nw{ñVH m _| àíZ H m H« _m§H number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
Adí` {bI| &
(V) Bg àíZ-nÌ H mo nT+Zo Ho {bE 15 {_ (V) 15 minute time has been allotted
ZQ H m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H m to read this question paper.
The question paper will be
{dVaU nydm©• _| 10.15 ~Oo {H `m OmEJm & distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH NmÌ Ho db 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
àíZ-nÌ nT+|Jo Am¡a Bg Ad{Y Ho Xm¡amZ students will read the question
do CÎma-nw{ñVH m na H moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo & paper only and will not write
any answer on the answer-book
--- during this period.

ENGLISH
(Language and Literature)

Times allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:
(i) The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, GRAMMAR &
WRITING and LITERATURE.
(ii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

2/1/1 1 P.T.O.
 SECTION A
Reading 20 marks

1. Read the passage given below:

1. Mountains have always been held in great awe by mankind. They have
been a challenge to humans. Those brave among us have always wanted to
conquer them. You see, the more incredible the mountains, the greater the
thrill – a challenge to the bravery of the human race. Climbing mountains
is an experience that is hard to put into words. You are in a beautiful
environment and, when you reach the top, you feel incredible. But you
also have to climb down, which is when most accidents happen – people
are tired, it gets dark, it’s harder. So, mountain climbing is undoubtedly
one of the most popular adventure sports along with being challenging
and risky for the climber.
2. Without any perceived risk, there can’t be a feeling that any significant
challenge has been surmounted. Fair, but we have to bear in mind that
mountaineering is not a sport that can be embraced without preparation.
The enthusiasts must develop in themselves the spirit of adventure,
willingness to undertake hardships and risks, extraordinary powers
of perseverance, endurance, and keenness of purpose before climbing
a mountain. They should also know how to handle the mountaineering
equipment. Then comes the penance of the rigorous training. This could
very well be the lifeline up there. It helps inculcate and hone survival
instincts that allow the climber to negotiate perilous situations. There are
numerous institutes in India and abroad that offer such training.
3. Mountain climbers are unanimous in agreeing that the unpredictable
weather is what they fear the most. There may be sunshine one moment
and a snowstorm the other. At higher altitudes, snow is a regular feature
and being decisive about setting up camps or proceeding further is crucial.
The icy sheets after ice storms make walking treacherous, while the
powdery snow makes a mountaineer sink deep into the snow. Up there,
where the intention is to embrace Nature’s wonder, one realises that it
cannot be done without facing its formidable glory. A true mountaineer
may challenge the mountain, yet is always respectful to the powerful
forces of nature.
4. Summiting mountains carries its own health risks such as oxygen
and altitude sickness problems, frost bites, swelling of hands and feet,
fluid collection in brain or lungs and exhaustion. Yet, the gratification
mountaineers feel from mastering something that is so frightening, urges

2/1/1 2
 them to undertake these endeavours. We may think that the mountaineers
are fearless, experts say, “Not at all. It’s fear that keeps them so intrigued
with such arduous journeys.” Impulse and brazenness can be deadly foes.
In the words of the Indian mountaineer, Bachendri Pal, “The biggest risk
... is to not to take the risk at all. Remember that.”..  (444 words)
(Source:https://evirtualguru.com/essay-on-mountaineering
https://fairgaze.com/fgnews/mountaineering-origin-and-its
benefits_71549.html
https://www.aplustopper.com/essay-on-mountain-climbing/
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the
questions given below:
(A) Why does the writer say that mountains inspire ‘awe’ in humans?
 (Paragraph 1)
(a) They present us with opportunities for exciting sports.
(b) They evoke the wish in us to master them.
(c) They inspire in us deeds of valour.
(d) They represent peace and calm to us.
(B) Select the option that corresponds to the following relation below:
The more incredible the mountains—the greater the thrill
 (Paragraph 1)
(a) The higher the stamina—the lower the food intake.
(b) The more you laugh—the lesser your illness.
(c) The smaller the car—the bigger the advantage.
(d) The heavier the luggage—the higher the penalty.
(C) Select the option that displays what the writer projects, with
reference to the following:
So, mountain climbing is undoubtedly one of the most popular

adventure sports (Paragraph 1).
(a) doubt (b) caution
(c) conviction (d) denial
(D) Complete the following with a phrase from paragraph 1.
Opinion Reason
Best
experienced
....................... rather than
.......... described
(E) The writer compares training to penance in the line --Then comes
the penance of the rigorous training.  (Paragraph 2)

2/1/1 3 P.T.O.
 State 1 point of similarity between training and penance.
(F) Based on your reading of the text, list 2 reasons why the writer
says that “mountaineering is not a sport that can be embraced
without preparation”. (Paragraph 2)
(1) .........................
(2) .........................
(G) What connect does the writer draw out between unpredictable
weather and setting up of camps?  (Paragraph 3)
(H) The writer says, “A true mountaineer may challenge the mountain,
yet is always respectful to the powerful forces of nature.”
 (Paragraph 3)
Select the reason the mountaineer is respectful to the forces of nature,
up in the mountains.
(a) survival (b) experience
(c) tradition (d) directive
(I) Supply 1 point to justify the following:
While mountain climbing, an impulsive mountaineer is either
disaster-prone or as good as dead.
(J) Evaluate the INAPPROPRIATE reason for the feeling of
exhilaration on reaching a summit, that the mountain-climbers
experience.
(a) Achievement of a seemingly impossible feat
(b) Spectacular panoramic view
(c) Application of the inculcated survival instincts
(d) Opportunity to use sophisticated mountaineering equipment
2. Read the following excerpt from a case study titled ‘Impacts of
Festivities on Ecology’.
1. Festivals are synonymous with celebration, ceremony and joy. However
festivals bring to fore the flip side of celebrations – pollution – air, water,
soil and noise. This led to the need of assessing the awareness level
among people about ecological pollution during festivals. So, a study was
conducted by scholars of an esteemed university in India. This study was
titled “Awareness Towards Impact of Festivals on Ecology.”
2. There were two main objectives of the study. The first one was to assess
the awareness level among people about ecological protection during
festivities, exploring solutions to bring awareness about celebrating
festivals without harming ecology was the second objective. The method
used to collect data was a simple questionnaire containing 6 questions,

2/1/1 4
 shared with 50 respondents across four selected districts of a state in the
southern region of India.
3. The research began by understanding the socio-economic conditions of
the respondents before sharing the questionnaire. Once the responses were
received, the data collected was tabulated (Table 1), for analysis.
Table-1: Awareness level among respondents
Can’t Say
Questions Yes % No %
%
1. Do you feel that bursting crackers 46 54 0
is a must during festivities?
2. Do you think most people abuse 72 28 0
environmental resources during
celebration of festivals?
3. Do you think that celebrations and 64 32 4
festivities result in uniting people?
4. Do you enjoy bursting crackers for 68 32 0
amusement?
5. Do you feel pressured to burst 82 12 6
crackers during festivals as an
expectation of your social status?
6. Are you aware of waste segregation 56 40 4
and disposal guidelines for better
ecology?
4. The study recommended the imposition of strict rules and regulations as
opposed to a total ban on all festive activities which have a drastic impact
on our environment. The researchers believed that such measures would
help in harnessing some ill-effects that add to the growing pollution and
suggest further studies be taken up across the country to assess awareness
about ecological degradation.
5. The observations made in the study pointed to the environmental groups
and eco-clubs fighting a losing battle due to city traffic issues, disposal
of plastics, garbage dumping and all sorts of ecological degradation. The
researchers stressed that the need of the hour is increasing awareness
among reduce ecological pollution which can be facilitated by celebrating
all festivals in an eco-friendly manner.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the
questions given below:
(A) Why do the researchers call pollution the ‘flip side’ of festivals?
(B) Comment on the significance of the second objective of the study
with reference to paragraph 2.

2/1/1 5 P.T.O.
 (C) J ustify the researchers’ recommendation for limiting the drastic
impact of festival pollution on the environment with reference to
paragraph 3 & 4.
(D) Why do the researchers feel that environmental groups and eco-
clubs are fighting a losing battle in the given scenario?
(E) Even though a larger number of people say ‘no’ to bursting crackers
than those who say ‘yes’, festival pollution persists. How does
evidence from Table 1 support this statement?
(F) 82% of respondents said they feel pressured to burst firecrackers
during festivals. This is an example of:
(a) Psychological manipulation
(b) Peer pressure
(c) Ethical behavior
(d) Brainwashing
(G) 
According to the survey, what was needed to stop people from
bursting firecrackers during festivals?
(a) A complete ban on firecrackers
(b) Strict rules and regulations
(c) Finding eco-friendly alternatives to firecrackers
(d) None of the above
(H) ‘Festivals are synonymous with celebration, ceremony and joy.’
Replace the underlined word with an option that means the same.
(a) Relatable
(b) One and the same as
(c) Opposite to
(d) Symbolic of
(I) The researchers were able to find from the survey that:
(a) A majority of people think firecrackers are a must during
festivities.
(b) A major portion of the respondents do not like bursting firecrackers.
(c) Everyone was aware of the waste disposal guidelines.
(d) Many people abuse environmental resources during festivals.
(J) Why did the researchers begin by understanding the socio-economic
conditions of the respondents?
(a) To understand how much they spent on firecrackers.
(b) They only wanted to focus on one socio-economic class.
(c) They wanted to find which socio-economic class causes most
pollution.
2/1/1 6
 (d) To understand the pressures and perspectives of different
socio-economic classes.

SECTION B
Grammar and Writing 20 marks

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed. 1 × 10 = 10

(A) C
 omplete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct
option:
As I was standing on the dock, looking out at the lake for the last
time, a feeling of emptiness ............... over me like darkness.
(a) will wash (b) had washed
(c) will have washed (d) washed 1
(B) I n the following paragraph, one word is incorrect in each line. Choose
the correct option for each correct word.
Error Correction
Challenges in life always brought e.g., (A) Brought bring
opportunities. One can never lose (B) ............... ...............
heart . It is only a matter for being (C) ............... ...............
firm. Once a obstacle is crossed things start falling in place.
(D) ............... ...............
(C) “ Your exams will go well. Just don’t panic.” Report the teacher’s
advice to her students 1
(D) Read the following dialogue between Kashika and Sam. The
underlined parts of this dialogue may or may not have an error.
Choose the option that best replaces the underlined part(s). You may
choose 'no error' if no change is required.
Kashika: S
 am, will we take a look at the rules of the poetry competition
conveyed by Ms Natasha last Tuesday? We have very little time
to prepare.
Sam: Y  ou're right! I completely forgot about it. We should not delay it
any longer.
(a) no error; shall not
(b) shall we; no error
(c) may we; may not
(d) can we; could not 1
(E) 
Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the
sentence below.

2/1/1 7 P.T.O.
 Shazia stared at the mountain range before her. From a distance
..................., (this/that/these/those) towering peaks seemed to touch the
sky, creating a breathtaking sight. 1
(F) 
Identify the error and supply the correction for the following
statement.
The national team could adhere to a strict code of conduct, refraining
from cheating and unethical behaviour, or else they will be disqualified.
 1
(G) S
 elect the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction
for the given line, from a survey.
Everyone are expected to submit their feedback to our customer
service representative at the event.
Option No. Error Correction
(a) are is
(b) their your
(c) feedback feedbacks
(d) the a
1
(H) Fill in the blank with the correct option.
Dad: "Ramya, I heard your school made some changes recently. What
is going on?"
Ramya: "Yes, dad. The school administration ......................... a
revised attendance policy to ensure academic success."
(a) will implement
(b) is implementing
(c) has implemented
(d) was implementing 1
(I) Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
The coach shouted, "................... the ball!" Later, he ................... onto
the ball in order to dictate the game's pace.
(a) pass; commanded them to hold
(b) passed; command them to held
(c) passes; commands them to hold
(d) passing; commanded them to held 1
(J) C
 omplete Nelson Mandela's quote by filling in the blank with the
correct option.
"The greatest glory in living ...................... not in never falling, but in
rising every time we fall." - Nelson Mandela

2/1/1 8
 (a) lie (b) lies
(c) lays (d) laying 1
(K) Reena always ........................ the truth.
(a) speak (b) speaks
(c) will speak (d) speaking 1
(L) I Identify the error in the given sentence, from a school magazine
report and supply the correction.
In order to balancing the sentiments of the Eagles and the Hawks, the
Student Council suggested a rematch between the teams.1
4. Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
You are Vipul/Apoorva living at D-424, Island Avenue, Ernakulam. You
have seen an advertisement given below about a diploma course in French
language soon to be organized by Maxwell Institute of Languages, Fort
Road, Kochi.
Maxwell Institute of Languages
French courses available for students wanting to learn the
language. Assurance of fluency. Interested students may
please contact: Director,
Maxwell Institute of Language

Write a letter in 120 words to the advertiser seeking all relevant information
like admission procedure, fee structure, duration of the course, timing of the
class, transport facilities, etc.
OR
You are Sunidhi Prakash, the Vice Captain of Brilliant Vidyalaya, Barra,
Kanpur. You have recently noticed several posters around your school
premises conveying a hazardous message:
Lose weight in just a month!
“A WONDER DIET comes to your rescue …
A privilege available for only a few!”
Write a letter to the Editor of The DWA, in not more than 120 words,
drawing attention towards harm caused by such advertising. Propose
the implementation of “Wholesome Lunch Month’ in schools as an idea
to address such practices, mention the advantages and share suggestions
to foster healthy eating routines and develop positive body image among
youngsters. 5

2/1/1 9 P.T.O.
 5. Study the concept chart from the self-help magazine section of a
monthly publication.

Assess di iculty of work and

Write a paragraph in not more than 120 words analysing the listed responses
to the situation when one faces setbacks.
You may begin like this: Setbacks often leave us with a feeling of
disappointment ...
You may end like this: Hence, developing a healthy response to setbacks must
be seen as a learning opportunity though it may take time and effort.
OR
World Economic Forum carried out a survey to identify the cause of our
country's poor economic growth.
Read the following excerpt taken from an article published by them online:
“A holistic approach in higher education based on knowledge, skill and value
is required for our nation to become a global talent leader.”
Write a paragraph in 120 words on your interpretation of the data and what
steps must be taken to help change India’s economic growth and make it a
developed country.
You may begin like this: The survey conducted by the World Economic Forum
give / do not give us relevant insights into the higher education sector in
India.

2/1/1 10
 You may end like this: The given information gives us / does not give us a
clear case for India's next step forward.
Use of Talent in India
1.4% Enrolment rate in vocational
training.
8.7% Gap in mean years of schooling
between rich and poor.
3.3% Share of GDP invested in ed-
ucation.
36% Female labour force partici-
pation.
 5

SECTION C
Literature  40 marks

6. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
When he saw those photos, Ebright didn’t shout, ‘Eureka!’ or even, ‘I’ve got
it!’ But he believed that, along with his findings about insect hormones,
the photos gave him the answer to one of biology’s puzzles: how the cell
can ‘read’ the blueprint of its DNA. DNA is the substance in the nucleus
of a cell that controls heredity. It determines the form and function of
the cell. Thus, DNA is the blueprint for life. Ebright and his college
room-mate, James R. Wong, worked all that night drawing pictures and
constructing plastic models of molecules to show how it could happen.
Together they later wrote the paper that explained the theory.
(A) Choose the option that shows the picture of the type of task Ebright
and Wong were engaged in, as per the extract.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(B) E bright was perhaps expected to shout ‘Eureka!’ because he had
.................
(C) “Thus, DNA is the blueprint for life”, is another way of saying that
the DNA contains a genetic ................. .
(a) experiment (b) ultimatum
(c) takeaway (d) plan
(D) Four newspapers published a headline about Ebright and Wong.

2/1/1 11 P.T.O.
 Choose the option that published a factually correct headline, as per
the extract:

Options:
(a) Newspaper 1 (b) Newspaper 2
(c) Newspaper 3 (d) Newspaper 4
(E) Compound words are those words which are formed by joining two
separate words to create a new word with an entirely different
meaning.
Identify two compound words from the above extract.
OR
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Stepanovna is an excellent housekeeper, not bad-looking, well-educated.
What more do I want? But I’m getting a noise in my ears from excitement.
[Drinks] And it’s impossible for me not to marry. In the first place, I’m
already 35 — a critical age, so to speak. In the second place, I ought to lead
a quiet and regular life. I suffer from palpitations, I’m excitable and always
getting awfully upset; at this very moment my lips are trembling, and there’s
a twitch in my right eyebrow. But the very worst of all is the way I sleep. I no
sooner get into bed and begin to go off, when suddenly something in my left
side gives a pull, and I can feel it in my shoulder and head... I jump up like
a lunatic, walk about a bit and lie down again, but as soon as I begin to get
off to sleep there’s another pull! And this may happen twenty times...
(A) Which of the following is NOT true about Stepanovna?
(a) She was well-educated.
(b) She was not bad-looking.
(c) She was an excellent housekeeper.
(d) She was tall.
(B) Choose the statement that is NOT true about Lomov:
(a) Lomov was 35-year old man.
(b) Lomov was medically fit.

2/1/1 12
 (c) Lomov was willing to get married to Natalya.
(d) Lomov wanted to live a peaceful life.
(C) What was Lomov’s reaction to his decision of marrying Natalya?
(D) What ailments were Lomov suffering from?
(E) Which word is NOT similar to ‘trembling’?
(a) Shaking (b) Steady
(c) Quivering (d) Twitching.
7. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Some say the world will end in fire,
Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice.
(A) The poet says that both fire and ice would be sufficient for the
destruction of the world. What is the tone of the poet?
(B) Does the poet believe that desire is more capable of bringing the
world to end than hatred? Evaluate in about 40 words based on your
understanding of the poem.
(C) The poem is a ..................., put across by the poet.
(D) The poet uses the phrasal verb -hold with. Choose the option that
DOES NOT indicate a valid phrasal verb.
(a) O

(d) Into (b) Back

(c) On

OR
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
The fog comes
on little cat feet.
It sits looking

2/1/1 13 P.T.O.
 over harbour and city
on silent haunches
and then moves on.
(A) Which qualities of the cat has Carl Sandburg applied to Fog?
(B) Which one/s of the following applies to the given lines?
Personi cation is a literary
Transferred epithet is a
device where you give an
literary device when an
animal, object or natural
adjective usually used to
phenomenon, qualities or
describe one thing is
abilities that only a human
transferred to another.
can have.

(1) (2)
Imagery is the language Oxymoron is a
used by poets, and writers  gure of speech
to create visual in which
representation of ideas contradictory terms
in the minds of appear side
the readers by side.

(3) (4)

Select an appropriate option:

(a) (1) & (4) (b) (2) & (3)
(c) (1) only (d) (3) only
(C) Evaluate the following statement in about 40 words and give reasons
for your answer.
No action takes place in the poem 'Fog'.
(D) The poet has used short lines to compose the given poem. Why do you
think he has done this?
8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words.
 4 × 3 = 12
(A) Discribe the Kodavus as mentioned in the lesson. 3
(B) D o you think the tiger in the poem had lost its natural instinct due to
captivity? Support your response with evidence from the poem. 3
(C) Read the anecdote:
‘The field was white, as if covered with salt.’ This is how the field is
described after the hailstorm. The pelting hailstones could have been
easily seen as sugar cubes.
Do you think comparing it with sugar would have been more
appropriate? Why/ Why not? 3
(D) E xplain the emotion vested in Anne’s statement, “…I was plunked
down on the table as a birthday present for Margot.”  3
(E) G ive one reason why ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’ is more a fable
than a ballad. 3

2/1/1 14
 9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words
each. 2×3=6
(A) W  hat did Mrs Pumphery do to bring her dog back to normal health?
Was she successful? 3
(B) D  o you agree that the teacher was an artist and Bholi was her
masterpiece? Why/ why not? 3
(C) M  ax, who said: "I will get it back tonight." Was he successful?
Conclude the lesson learnt from this? 3
10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words.
 1×6=6
You have been asked to give a speech on the topic 'The journey is more
important than the destination'. Prepare a draft for the speech, in not more
than 120 words, with reference to the texts Madam Rides the Bus and The
Black Aeroplane.
You may begin this way:
Good morning, everyone. Today, I would like to talk to you about how the
journeys that we experience in life are often more important than their
destinations.
You may end this way:
To conclude, I would like to say that...
Thank you.
OR
I magine Robert Frost from ‘A Dust of Snow’ met with Lencho from ‘A Letter
to God’ and discussed the various ways nature can influence a person's
mood. Create this conversation in not more than 120 words.
You may begin this way:
Lencho: As a farmer, my livelihood depends on nature and sometimes
nature can be cruel. 6
11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words.
 1×6=6
Mme. Forestier proved to be a true friend. Elucidate. 6

OR
Fiction writers prefer creating grey characters rather than black and white.
Analyse this in detail, with reference to both the characters of The Thief’s
Story. 6

2/1/1 15 P.T.O.
 Blueprint - Maths Standard, X
(for March 2024 board exams)

Section A Section B Section C Section D Section E

Total Marks
(1 mark) (2 marks) (3 marks) (5 marks) (4 marks)

MCQ 18Q – – – – 18 marks

Assertion/
2Q – – – – 2 marks
Reason

5Q
Very Short Answer – – – – 10 marks
(2 internal choices)

6Q
Short Answer – – – – 18 marks
(2 internal choices)

4Q
Long Answer – – – – 20 marks
(2 internal choices)

3Q
Case/ Data-based – – – – (1 internal choice) 12 marks
per case-study

TOTAL 20Q 5Q 6Q 4Q 3Q 80 marks

Note:- The paper contains competency-based questions in the form of Stand-alone, Assertion/ Reason, Table-based and Case-based questions in all
Sections.
 Series WYXZ1/3 SET ~ 1
àíZ-nÌ H moS
Q.P. Code 30/1/1
amob Z¨µ
Roll No.

NOTE
(I) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| (I) Please check that this question
_w{XV n¥ð 12 h¢ & paper contains 12 printed pages.

(II) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H r Amoa {XE (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand
àíZ-nÌ H moS H mo narjmWu CÎma-nw{ñVH m side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the
Ho _wI-n¥ð na {bI| & answer-book by the candidate.
(III) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| 38 (III) Please check that this question
àíZ h¢ & paper contains 38 questions.

(IV) H¥ n`m àíZ H m CÎma {bIZm ewê H aZo go (IV) Please write down the serial
nhbo, CÎma-nw{ñVH m _| àíZ H m H« _m§H number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
Adí` {bI| &
(V) Bg àíZ-nÌ H mo nT+Zo Ho {bE 15 {_ (V) 15 minute time has been allotted
ZQ H m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H m to read this question paper.
The question paper will be
{dVaU nydm©• _| 10.15 ~Oo {H `m OmEJm & distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH NmÌ Ho db 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
àíZ-nÌ nT+|Jo Am¡a Bg Ad{Y Ho Xm¡amZ students will read the question
do CÎma-nw{ñVH m na H moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo & paper only and will not write
any answer on the answer-book
--- during this period.

xf.kr (ekud)
MATHEMATICS (STANDARD)

{ZYm©{aV g_` : 3 ¿mÊQo 80

A{YH V_ A§H :
Times allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

.30/1/1 1 P.T.O.
General Instructions:
(i) This Question paper contains - five sections A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) Section A has 18 MCQs and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark
each.
(iii) Section B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA)-type questions of 2 marks each.
(iv) Section C has 6 Short Answer (SA)-type questions of 3 marks each.
(v) Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA)-type questions of 5 marks each.
(vi) Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (4 marks each)
with sub parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
(vii) All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 questions of 5
marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 questions of 2 marks has been provided. An
internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E.

SECTION A

Question numbers 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each.

1. If two positive integers p and q can be expressed as p = ab2 and q = a3b; a,
b being prime numbers, then LCM (p, q) is:
(a) ab (b) a 2b 2
(c) a 3b 2 (d) a 3b 3 1
2. In graph, a polynomial P(x) is shown. The number of zeroes of P(x) is:
y
P(x)
A B
C x
x'

y'

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 1
3. The value of k for which the system of linear equations x + 2y = 3, 5x + ky
+ 7 = 0 is inconsistent, is:

14 2
(a) − (b)
3 5
(c) 5 (d) 10 1

.30/1/1 2
4. The roots of the equation x2 – 3x – m(m + 3) = 0,where m is a constant,
are:
(a) m, m + 3 (b) –m, m + 3
(c) m, –(m + 3) (d) –m, –(m + 3) 1
5. Two A.P.s have the same common difference. The first term of one of these
is –1 and that of the other is –8. Then the difference between their 4th
terms is:
(a) –1 (b) –8
(c) 7 (d) –9 1
6. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is:
(a) 5 units (b) 12 units
(c) 11 units (d) (7 + 5 ) units 1
7. The relation between x and y so that the point (x,y) is equidistant from the points
(-4,-4) and (-2,4) is:
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) 8 1
8. ABCD is a trapezium with AD || BC and AD = 4cm. If the diagonals AC
AO DO 1
and BD intersect each other at O such that = OB = , then BC =
OC 2
A D
4 cm

B C

(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 9 cm 1
9. At one end A of diameter AB of a circle of radius 5 cm, tangent XAY is
drawn to the circle. The length of the chord CD parallel to XY and at a
distance 8 cm from A is:
(a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm. 1
10. The minute hand of a clock is 84 cm long. The distance covered by the tip of
minute hand from 10:10 am to 10:25 am is :
(A) 44 cm (b) 88 cm
(c) 132 cm (d) 176 cm 1

.30/1/1 3 P.T.O.
 coty°
11. In the given figure, D is the mid-point of BC, then the value of is:
cotx°

1
(a) 2 (b)
2
1 1
(c) (d)
3 4 1
12. While eating sandwich, Chetna jokingly remarked that she can find out
the value of any trigonometric ratio if just one ratio is known to her, as
the sandwich is a right-angled triangle.

3 sin A + 2 cos A
If 3 tan A = 4, then the value of 3 sin A − 2 cos A is:

(a) 4 (b) 11
15
(c) 7 (d) 3 1
15
13. A 1.6 m tall girl stands at a distance of 3.2 m from a lamppost and casts a
shadow of 4.8 m on the ground. Find the height of the lamppost. 1
14. If the radii of two circles are in the ratio of4 : 3, then their areas are in the
ratio of:
(a) 4:3 (b) 8:3
(c) 16 : 9 (d) 9 : 16 1
15. The perimeter of a sector of a circle having radius r and angle 60° is:

π  π 
r  +1 2r  -1 
(a) (b)
6  6 
π  π 
(c) r + 2 (d) 2r  +1   1
6  6 

.30/1/1 4
16. Ram Sewak is a wholesale dealer in eggs. He procures eggs directly from
the poultry farms and sells them to the nearby stores

The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad eggs in the lot is:
(a) 7 (b) 14
(c) 21 (d) 58 1
17. From a pack of 52 playing cards jacks, queens, kings and aces of red
colour are removed. From the remaining, a card is drawn at random. Find
the probability that the card drawn is a red card.
1 1
(a) (b)
4 7
9
(c) 7 (d)
22  1
18. For the following distributions, the sum of the lower limits of the median and
modal class is:
Class Frequency
0-5 10
5-10 15
10-15 12
15-20 20
20-25 9

(a) 15 (b) 25
(c) 30 (d) 35 1
DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of assertion (A).

.30/1/1 5 P.T.O.
 (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
19. Assertion (A): If two identical solid cube of side 7 cm are joined end to end. Then
the total surface area of the resulting cuboid is 490 cm2.
Reason (R): T
 otal surface area of cuboid = lb + bh + hl 1
1 1 1
20. Assertion (A): L
 et the positive numbers a, b, c be in A.P., then , , ,
are also in A.P. bc ac ab

Reason (R): If each term of the given A.P. is multiplied by abc, then the
resulting sequence is also in A.P. 1

SECTION B

Question numbers 21 to 25 carry 2 marks each.

21. Write the smallest number which is divisible by both 306 and 657. 2
BF BE
22. In the figure, DE || AC and DF || AE. Prove that =
FE EC
A
 2
D

B C
F E

23. From a point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle C(O, r). If
OP = 2r, then find ∠APB. What type of triangle is APB?
 2

coty°
24. In the given figure, D is the mid-point of BC, then the value of is:
cotx°

1 1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4

.30/1/1 6
 OR
If K + 1 = sec2q(1 + sinq)(1 – sinq), find the value of K. 2

25. A 3.5 cm chord subtends an angle of 60º at the centre of a circle. What is
the arc length of the minor sector? Draw a rough figure and show your
22
steps. (Note: Take π as )
7
OR

In the given figure, arcs have been drawn of radius 7cm each with vertices
A, B, C and D of quadrilateral ABCD as centres. Find the area of the shaded
region.

 2

SECTION C

Question numbers 26 to 31 carry 3 marks each.

26. During a sale, colour pencils were being sold in the pack of 24 each and
crayons in the pack of 32 each. If you want full packs of both and the same
number of pencils and crayons, how many packets of each would you need to
buy? 3
27. Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are reciprocals of the zeroes of
the polynomial f(x) = ax2+ bx + c, a ¹ 0, c ¹ 0. 3
28. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train
would have been 6 km/h faster, it would have taken 4 hours less than
the scheduled time. And, if the train were slower by 6 km/hr ; it would
have taken 6 hours more than the scheduled time. Find the length of the
journey.
OR
If we add 1 to the numerator and subtract 1 from the denominator, a
1
fraction reduces to 1. It becomes , if we only add 1 to the denominator.
What is the fraction? 2 3
29. Prove that a parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

.30/1/1 7 P.T.O.
 OR
In the figure XY and X'Y' are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O
and another tangent AB with point of contact C interesting XY at A and X'Y'
at B, what is the measure of ∠AOB?
X P Y

O
C

X’ Q B Y’  3
Prove the following that:
30.
tan3 θ cot3 θ = secθ cosecθ – 2 sinθ cosθ
+
1 + tan2 θ 1 + cot2 θ  3
31. The below table shows the ages of persons who visited a museum on a
certain day.
Find the median age of the person visiting the museum.
Age (Years) No. of persons

Less than 10 3
Less than 20 10
Less than 30 22
Less than 40 40
Less than 50 54
Less than 60 71
 3

SECTION D

Question numbers 32 to 35 carry 5 marks each.

32. To fill a swimming pool two pipes are used. If the pipe of larger diameter
used for 4 hours and the pipe of smaller diameter for 9 hours, only half of
the pool can be filled. Find, how long it would take for each pipe to fill the
pool separately, if the pipe of smaller diameter takes 10 hours more than
the pipe of larger diameter to fill the pool?
  OR
A train covers a distance of 360 km at a uniform speed. Had the speed
been 5 km/hour more, it would have taken 48 minutes less for the journey.
Find the original speed of the train. 5

.30/1/1 8
 In the given figure, l || m and line segments AB, CD and EF are
33.
AE AC CE
concurrent at point P. Prove that = = .
BF BD FD
l m 

A
D
P
E F
B
C

5
34. There are two identical solid cubical boxes of side 7cm. From the top face
of the first cube a hemisphere of diameter equal to the side of the cube is
scooped out. This hemisphere is inverted and placed on the top of the second
cube’s surface to form a dome. Find :
(A)the ratio of the total surface area of the two new solid formed.
(B)volume of each new solid formed.
  OR
Ramesh made a bird-bath for his garden in the shape of a cylinder with a
hemispherical depression at one end. The height of the cylinder is 1.45 m
and its radius is 30 cm. Find the total surface area of the bird-bath.

 5

35. The median of the following data is 16. Find the missing frequencies a and
b, if the total of the frequencies is 70.
Class 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40
Frequency 12 a 12 15 b 6 6 4
 5

.30/1/1 9 P.T.O.
 SECTION E

Case Study-1
36. The school auditorium was to be constructed to accommodate at least 1500
people. The chairs are to be placed in concentric circular arrangement in
such a way that each succeeding circular row has 10 seats more than the
previous one.

(A) If the first circular row has 30 seats, how many seats will be there
in the 10th row?
(B) For 1500 seats in the auditorium, how many rows need to be there?

OR

If 1500 seats are to be arranged in the auditorium, how many seats

are still left to be put after 10th row?
(C) If there were 17 rows in the auditorium, how many seats will be there
in the middle row? 4

Case Study-2
37. A tiling or tessellation of a flat surface is the covering of a plane using
one or more geometric shapes, called tiles, with no overlaps and no gaps.
Historically, tessellations were used in ancient Rome and in Islamic art.
You may find tessellation patterns on floors, walls, paintings etc. Shown
below is a tiled floor in the archaeological Museum of Seville, made using
squares, triangles and hexagons.

.30/1/1 10
 A craftsman thought of making a floor pattern after being inspired by the
above design. To ensure accuracy in his work, he made the pattern on the
Cartesian plane. He used regular octagons, squares and triangles for his
floor tessellation pattern
13
R Q
12
S 11 P
10
T 9 O
F E
8
U G 7 D N
6
5
V H 4 C M
3
A B
W 2 L
1
0
X K
0 –9–8–7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 –11 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
I –2 J
–3
–4

Use the above figure to answer the questions that follow:

(A) What is the length of the line segment joining points B and F?
(B) The centre ‘Z’ of the figure will be the point of intersection of the
diagonals of quadrilateral WXOP. Then what are the coordinates of
Z?
(C) What are the coordinates of the point on y axis equidistant from A
and G?
OR
What is the area of trapezium AFGH? 4

.30/1/1 11 P.T.O.
 Case Study-3
38. Lakshaman Jhula is located 5 kilometers north-east of the city of
Rishikesh in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. The bridge connects the
villages of Tapovan to Jonk. Tapovan is in Tehri Garhwal district, on the
west bank of the river, while Jonk is in Pauri Garhwal district, on the east
bank. Lakshman Jhula is a pedestrian bridge also used by motorbikes. It
is a landmark of Rishikesh. A group of Class X students visited Rishikesh
in Uttarakhand on a trip. They observed from a point (P) on a river bridge
that the angles of depression of opposite banks of the river are 60° and 30°
respectively. The height of the bridge is about 18 meters from the river.

Based on the above information answer the following questions.

(A)Find the distance PA.
(B)Find the distance PB.

(C)Find the width AB of the river.

OR
Find the height BQ if the angle of the elevation from P to Q be 30°. 4

.30/1/1 12
 Blueprint - Science, X
(for March 2024 board exam)

Section A Section B Section C Section D Section E

Total Marks
(1 marks) (2 marks) (3 marks) (5 marks) (4 marks)

MCQ 16Q – – – – 16 marks

Assertion/
4Q – – – – 4 marks
Reason

6Q
Very Short Answer – – – – 12 marks
(2 internal choices)

7Q
Short Answer – – – – 21 marks
(1 internal choice)

3Q
Long Answer – – – – 15 marks
(3 internal choices)

3Q
Case/ Data-based – – – – (1 internal choice) 12 marks
per case-study

TOTAL 20Q 6Q 7Q 3Q 3Q 80 marks

Note:- 2023-24 Science sample paper contains competency-based questions in the form of Standalone, Diagram, Statement, Assertion/ Reason,
Table-based and Case-based questions.
 SET ~ 1
Series WYXZ1/4 àíZ-nÌ H moS
Q.P. Code 31/1/1
amob Z¨µ
Roll No.

NOTE
(I) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| (I) Please check that this question
_w{XV n¥ð 9 h¢ & paper contains 9 printed pages.

(II) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H r Amoa {XE (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand
àíZ-nÌ H moS H mo narjmWu CÎma-nw{ñVH m side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the
Ho _wI-n¥ð na {bI| & answer-book by the candidate.
(III) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| 39 (III) Please check that this question
àíZ h¢ & paper contains 39 questions.

(IV) H¥ n`m àíZ H m CÎma {bIZm ewê H aZo go (IV) Please write down the serial
nhbo, CÎma-nw{ñVH m _| àíZ H m H« _m§H number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
Adí` {bI| &
(V) Bg àíZ-nÌ H mo nT+Zo Ho {bE 15 {_ (V) 15 minute time has been allotted
ZQ H m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H m to read this question paper.
The question paper will be
{dVaU nydm©• _| 10.15 ~Oo {H `m OmEJm & distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH NmÌ Ho db 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
àíZ-nÌ nT+|Jo Am¡a Bg Ad{Y Ho Xm¡amZ students will read the question
do CÎma-nw{ñVH m na H moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo & paper only and will not write
any answer on the answer-book
--- during this period.

foKku
SCIENCE
fu/kkZfjr le; % 3 ?k.Vs vf/kdre vad % 80
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some
questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

.31/1/1 1 P.T.O.
 iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers
to these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer
to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks
each with sub-parts

SECTION - A
1. Which of the following is the correct observation of the reaction shown in the
following set up?

Tong
Magnesium
ribbon
Burner Watch glass
Magnesium
oxide

(a) Brown powder of Magnesium oxide is formed.

(b) Colourless gas which turns lime water milky is evolved.
(c) Magnesium ribbon burns with brilliant white light.
(d) Reddish brown gas with a smell of burning Sulphur has evolved. 1
2. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X : 2, 8; Y : 2,
8, 7 and Z : 2, 8, 2. Which of the following is correct?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metal
(c) Z is a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal 1
3. If 10 mL of H2SO4 is mixed with 10 mL of Mg(OH)2 of the same concentration,
the resultant solution will give the following colour with universal indicator:
(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Green (d) Blue 1
4. A white flowered plant is denoted as pp and a purple flowered plant is
denoted as PP. If the two plants are cross bred with each other, then what
will be the likely flower colour of the plants of F1 generation?
(a) White
(b) Purple
(c) Both purple and white
(d) Light purple 1
.31/1/1 2
 5. Four combustion reactions of carbon compounds are shown below.
CH4 + O2→ CO2 + H2O + heat
CH3CHO + O → CO2 + H2O + heat
CH3CH2CH2OH + O2→ CO2 + H2O + heat
C6H6 + O2→ CO2 + H2O + heat
What can be concluded from the four reactions?
(I) All carbon compounds release oxygen on
combustion.
(II) All carbon compounds release water on
reacting with oxygen.
(III) All carbon compounds produce carbon
dioxide on reacting with oxygen.
Options:
(a) Only (I) (b) (I) and (II)
(c) (II) and (III) (d) (I), (II) and (III) 1
6. A solution of a base with pH 12.1 is given. Which of the following can be
done to decrease its pH?
(I) Add distilled water to it
(II) Add a solution of a different base with pH 8.7
(III) Add few drops of an acid with an unknown pH
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Only (I) and (II)
(d Any of (I), (II) and (III) 1
7. The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so,
if other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged, the heating effects in
the resistor will become:
(a) two times (b) half
(c) one-fourth (d) four times 1
8. Most of the digestion and absorption of the food takes place in the:
(a) small intestine (b) liver
(c) stomach (d) large intestine 1
9. Semen which contain millions of sperms also contains secretions of seminal
vesicle and prostrate gland (accessory glands). It makes the transport of
sperms easier and provide nutrition to sperms.
Correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of
sperms is:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra

.31/1/1 3 P.T.O.
 (b) Testis → ureter → urethra
(c) Testis → urethra → ureter
(d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter 1
10. 
Why should an individual organism waste energy on a process like
reproduction which it does not need to stay alive?
(a)To release excess energy stored by it
(b)To have genetic improvement
(c) To extend its own kind
(d)To provide variation 1
11. The hormone which increases fertility in males is called:
(a)oestrogen (b) testosterone
(c) insulin (d)growth hormone  1
12. Which of the following oxide(s) is/are soluble in water to form alkalies?
(I) Na2O (II) SO2
(III) K2O (IV) NO2
Options:
(a) (I) and (III) (b) (I) only
(c) (II) and (IV) (d) (III) only 1
13. In which of the following diagrams has the protractor (D) been correctly
placed to measure the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence?

I II III IV

Options:
(a)I, III (b)I, IV
(c) II, III (d)II, IV 1
14. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to:
(a)the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b)reflection of the sky in water
(c) scattering of light
(d)absorption of light by the sea 1
15. 
What percentage of sun's energy falling on the leaves of green plants is
utilised by the plants in the process of photosynthesis and stored as chemical
energy of food?
(a)99% (b)10%
(c) 1% (d)20% 1

.31/1/1 4
 16. As human being occupy the top level in any food chain, the maximum
concentration of insecticides get accumulated in our bodies. This phenomenon
is known as:
(a)Pollution
(b)Eutrophication
(c) Biological magnification
(d)None of these 1
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (a) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
17. Assertion (A): Most
 of the salts when brought into the flame, impart
characteristic colours to the flame.
Reason (R):  Potassium salts impart violet colour and barium salts im-
part green colour to the flame. 1
18. Assertion (A): Pollen grains are produced by all flowers.
Reason (R): Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and pro-
duces pollen grains.1
19. Assertion (A): E
 lectric appliances with metallic body have three pin
connection, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin
connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connection reduces heating of connecting wires.1
20. Assertion (A):  I mprovements in our lifestyle have resulted in lesser
amounts of waste material generation.
Reason (R): Changes in packaging have resulted in much of the waste
generated to be non-biodegradable.1

SECTION - B
21. A student prepared solutions of (I) an acid and (II) a base in two separate
beakers. She forgot to label the solutions and litmus paper is not available
in the laboratory. Since, both the solutions are colourless, how will she
distinguish between the two? 2
22. (i) Name the longest cell present in the human body.
(ii) Enlist the alternative name for "Hormones".  2
23.  If human urine is allowed to stand for sometime, it smells of ammonia,
why? 2
.31/1/1 5 P.T.O.
 24. The table below shows the refractive index of different materials.
Flint
Water Kerosene Diamond
glass
Refractive index
of
1.33 1.44 1.65 2.42
the
material
The formula for calculating the refractive index (nm) of a material is,
Speed of light in X
nm = Speed of light in the medium

(A) What does X stand for ?

(B) The picture shows the path of light as it travels from one medium to
another.
incident ray

Medium 1

Medium 2 refracted ray

W hich one of the two medium is rarer? 2

25. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2C from a point of 118V to a
point of 128V?
OR
Reema reverses the direction of the battery in the circuit. She turns the
circuit ON.

battery
+

Draw an arrow on the magnetic needle to show the correct deflection.2

26. Presbyopia is a defect in vision. What is the primary cause of presbyopia?2

SECTION - C
27. (A) W rite two observations when lead nitrate is heated in a test tube.
(B) Name the type of reaction.
(C) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction. 3
.31/1/1 6
 28. Two resistors with resistance 5 Ohm and 10 Ohm respectively are to be
connected to a battery of 6V so as to obtain minimum and maximum current
flowing.
(A)How will you connect the resistors in each case?
(B)Calculate the strength of total current in the circuit in the two cases.
OR
(A) A
 metal X present in rock salt is highly reactive and it is stored un-
der kerosene to prevent it from catching fire. It exists in nature as XCl.
Identify the metal ‘X’. How can this metal be extracted from its chloride?
(B) How is calcination different from roasting?3
29. (A) You are given two solutions A and B and their pH is 6 and 8 respectively.
(i) Which of the two solutions have more hydrogen ion concentration?
(ii) Which is acidic and which is basic?
(B) What is dilution? 3
30. Give reason:
(A) Water enters continuously into the root xylem.
(B) S
 waati while advising her little brother that eating unhealthy food will
cause trouble in his digestion, also explained about the role of bile. She
told him that although bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essen-
tial for the digestion. Support Swaati’s view by giving a proper explana-
tion.3
31. (A) C
 an a convergent lens in one medium become divergent in another
medium?
(B) T
 wo thin lenses of focal length +10 cm and –5 cm are kept in contact.
What is the focal length and power of combination?
 concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n times the size of
(C) A
an object. What would be the object distance for which image is real?3
32. (A) Write the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating.
(B) C
 ompute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge
in two hours through a potential difference of 40 V.3
33. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2C from a point of 118V to a
point of 128V?3

SECTION - D
34. 
What is observed after about 1 hour of adding the strips of copper and
aluminium separately to ferrous sulphate solution filled in two beakers?
Name the reaction if any change in colour is noticed. Also, write chemical
equation for the reactions.

.31/1/1 7 P.T.O.
 OR
How can it be proved that the water of crystallisation makes a difference in
the state and colour of the compounds? 5
35. Draw a diagram of longitudinal section of a bisexual flower and label the
following:
Ovary, anther, style, stigma, filament
Identify from these the female reproductive organs and state one function
of each.
OR
How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood? 5
36. (A) List the parts of human eye that controls the amount of light entering
into it. Explain how?
(B) Write the function of retina in human eye.
(C) I f due to some disease or injury, the cornea of an eye is clouded, the vi-
sion is impaired and the person may become blind. This type of blindness
may be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of the
donated eye. Suggest some measures for motivating people to donate their
eyes after death. 5

SECTION - E
This section has 3 case-based questions (37, 38 and 39). Each case is followed
by 3 sub-questions (a), (b) and (c). Parts (a) and (b) are compulsory. However,
an internal choice has been provided in Part (c).

37. A piece of magnesium ribbon is added to a flask containing dilute hydrochloric

acid. Hydrogen gas is formed which is collected in the measuring cylinder.
The amount of hydrogen formed with time is plotted on a graph.
The line on the graph indicates the rate of chemical reaction occuring in the
flask.

Measuring cylinder
Magnesium ribbon Hydrogen bubbles
plus dilute
hydrochloric acid Water
Reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid

Time (minutes)

Volume of
Hydrogen
(cm2)

Time (minutes)

(A) A t what time is the reaction rate fastest in the flask; at the start or in
the end. 1
(B) Which of these could increase the rate of reaction in the flask ?
P-Adding more acid to the flask 2
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 Q-Heating the acid in the flask
R-Using a higher concentration of acid
(C) The reaction is repeated with magnesium powder in place of magnesium
ribbon under the same conditions. Will the reaction rate increase or de-
crease ?
Explain your answer with reference to the volume of hydrogen formed in
teh flask at 2 minutes. 2
38. Mendel blended his knowledge of Science and Mathematics to keep the count
of the individuals exhibiting a particular trait in each generation. He observed
a number of contrasting visible characters controlled in pea plants in a field.
He conducted many experiments to arrive at the laws of inheritance.
(A) What do the F1 progeny of tall plants with round seeds and short plants
with wrinkled seeds look like? 1
(B) What are recessive traits? 1
(C) Mention the type of the new combinations of plants obtained in F2 prog-
eny along with their ratio. If F1 progeny was allowed to self pollinate. 2
39. Anshu described the magnetic field of a magnet by drawing the magnetic
field lines. When he placed a small north magnetic pole in the magnetic field
created by the magnet, and it experienced a force. When the north pole was
free, it moved under the influence of magnetic field.

N
N N

N
N
S N

The path traced by a north magnetic pole free to move under the influence
of a magnetic field is called magnetic field line.
(A) What do the magnetic field lines determine? 1
(B) Anshu further placed a strong bar magnet vertically above a horizontal
wooden board. What would be the position of the magnetic lines of force?
2
(C) Draw magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. 2

.31/1/1 9 P.T.O.
 Blueprint - Social Science, X
(for March 2024 board exams)

Section A Section B Section C Section D & F Section E

Total Marks
(1 marks) (2 marks) (3 marks) (5 marks) (4 marks)

Standalone MCQ 20Q – – – – 20 marks

4Q
Very Short Answer – – – – 8 marks
(1 internal choice)

5Q
Short Answer – – – – 15 marks
(1 internal choice)

4Q
Long Answer – – – – 20 marks
(4 internal choices)

Case/ Data-based – – – – 3Q 12 marks

1Q
Map Skill-based – – – – 5 marks
(1 internal choice in part B)

TOTAL 20Q 4Q 5Q 4Q + 1Q 3Q 80 marks

 SET ~ 1
Series WYXZ1/5
àíZ-nÌ H moS
Q.P. Code 32/1/1
amob Z¨µ
Roll No.

NOTE
(I) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| (I) Please check that this question
_w{XV n¥ð 10 h¢ & paper contains 10 printed pages.

(II) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H r Amoa {XE (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand
àíZ-nÌ H moS H mo narjmWu CÎma-nw{ñVH m side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the
Ho _wI-n¥ð na {bI| & answer-book by the candidate.
(III) H¥ n`m Om±M H a b| {H Bg àíZ-nÌ _| 37 (III) Please check that this question
àíZ h¢ & paper contains 37 questions.

(IV) H¥ n`m àíZ H m CÎma {bIZm ewê H aZo go (IV) Please write down the serial
nhbo, CÎma-nw{ñVH m _| àíZ H m H« _m§H number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
Adí` {bI| &
(V) Bg àíZ-nÌ H mo nT+Zo Ho {bE 15 {_ (V) 15 minute time has been allotted
ZQ H m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H m to read this question paper.
The question paper will be
{dVaU nydm©• _| 10.15 ~Oo {H `m OmEJm & distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH NmÌ Ho db 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
àíZ-nÌ nT+|Jo Am¡a Bg Ad{Y Ho Xm¡amZ students will read the question
do CÎma-nw{ñVH m na H moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo & paper only and will not write
any answer on the answer-book
--- during this period.

lkekftd foKku
SOCIAL SCIENCE

fu/kZfjr  le;  %  3  ?k.Vs vf/dre  vad  %  80
Times allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

.32/1/1 1 P.T.O.
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are
37 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions,
carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
(iv) Section C – contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions,
carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
(v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying
5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three
sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not
exceed 100 words.
(vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts,
37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
(viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions
have to be attempted.
(ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
Note: 
CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage
allocated for competency-based questions.

SECTION - A
1. Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from
the options given below.
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
(b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India
(d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission  1
2. Which of the following is a negative externality associated with the
construction of a dam?
(a) Dams help in flood control.
(b) D
 ams are water reservoirs and suppliers for industrial as well as
domestic purposes.

.32/1/1 2
 (c) Dams can channelise the natural flow of water.
(d) Dams can impound rivers to irrigate the agricultural fields. 1
3. Read the given data and answer the following question.

Country Gross Na- Life Expectancy Mean Years of School- HDI Rank
tional Income at birth ing of People aged 25 in the world
(GNI) per and above 2017 (2018)
capita (2011)
Sri 11,236 75.5 10.9 76
Lanka
India 6,353 68.8 6.4 130
Myan- 5,567 66.7 4.9 148
mar
Pakistan 5,531 66.6 5.2 150
Nepal 2,471 70.6 4.9 149
Bangla- 3,677 72.8 5.8 136
desh
Identify the country that most probably has a well-developed healthcare
system but lesser average education than India.
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Myanmar
(c) Pakistan (d) Nepal 1
4. Arrange in chronological order.
(I) Conservationists demanded a national wildlife protection programme.
(II) B
 utterflies, moths, beetles, and one dragonfly have been added to the
list of protected species.
(III) Plants were added to the protection list, starting with six species.
(IV) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented.
Codes:
(a) (III), (I), (IV) and (II)
(b) (II), (III), (I) and (IV)
(c) (I), (IV), (II) and (III)
(d) (II), (I), (IV) and (III) 1
5. .................... is the freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed
restrictions on the movement of goods. 1
6. Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in
Sri Lanka?

.32/1/1 3 P.T.O.
 (a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential policies in government jobs for Sinhalas.
(c) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils. 1
7. Assertion (A): A
 democratic government will take more time to follow
procedures before arriving at a decision.
Reason (R): A Democratic government is weak. 1
8. When do people have the provision to withdraw money? Choose the most
appropriate option from the following.
(a) They can withdraw money at the time of severe illness.
(b) They cannot withdraw money before it reaches to it maturity level.
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require.
(d) Once they have deposited they can only use it digitally.1
9. John is drawing the map of the world for his school assignment. Where
should he draw Luxembourg?
(a) Next to Italy (b) Next to Kazakhstan
(c) Next to Belgium (d) Next to Poland 1
10. Identify the country indicated through the symbols given in the picture.

(a) Bulgaria (b) Germany

(c) Italy (d) France 1
11. Shazia's teacher asked her a question, to which she answered, "MGNREGA
2005". What could have been the teacher's question?
(a) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Work.
(b) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Equality.
(c) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Freedom.
(d) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Education.
 1

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 12. Fill in the blank.
Social divisions based on …………. are peculiar in India.
(a) Discomfort (b) Religion
(c) Caste (d) Gender 1
13. Who among the following West-Indies cricketers trace their roots to
indentured labour migrants from India?
(a) Vivian Richards and Gary Sobers
(b) Chris Gayle and Dwayne Bravo
(c) Ramnaresh Sarwan and Shivnarine Chanderpaul
(d) Brian Lara and Courtney Walsh 1
14. Shazia's teacher asked her a question, to which she answered, "MGNREGA
2005". What could have been the teacher's question?
(a) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Work.
(b) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Equality.
(c) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Freedom.
(d) Name of the act that was devised to implement the Right to Education.
 1
15. Not everyone welcomed the printed book. There was widespread criticism.
What could have been the reason? Find the correct answer from the options
given below:
(a) It was feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read, then
rebellious and irreligious thoughts might spread.
(b) Books will corrupt the minds of young readers.
(c) It will divide the society into intellectuals and non-intellectuals.
(d) Time will be wasted in reading books and it will hamper the work of
daily life.  1
16. Identify the process:
(1) This type of mining is done in Jowai and Cherrapunji.
(2) Mining is carried out by family members in the form of a long narrow
tunnel.
(3) The National Green Tribunal has declared this activity illegal.1
17. The ...................... declared India as a Union of States.  1
18. …………… costs of borrowing increases the debt-burden. 1
19. Observe the party symbols and identify the associated political parties.

.32/1/1 5 P.T.O.
 (a) INC and CPI
(b) BSP and AAP
(c) BJP and AAP
(d) CPI and CPI (M) 1
20. Which of the following refers to investment?
(a) The money spent on religious ceremonies.
(b) The money spent on social customs.
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.
(d) The money spent on household goods. 1

SECTION - B
21. Observe the map given below showing the distribution of thermal and
nuclear power plants across India.

.32/1/1 6
 Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to measure real-time air pollution levels. A
high AQI represents poor air quality.
Accordingly, which of the following regions marked on the map is LIKELY
to experience comparatively better AQI?
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S 2
22. State two features of MGNREGA 2005.
OR
How can development and conservation of nature be carried out
simultaneously?  2
23. Describe the technological reforms taken by the Indian Government in the
field of agriculture. 2
24. Mention two aspects of an ideal federal system?  2

SECTION - C
25. Describe any three problems faced by Indian cotton weavers in the
nineteenth century. 3
26. Examine the role of missionaries in the growth of the press in India?
OR
Explain with examples, how do industries give a boost to the agriculture
sector. 3
27. Describe the incidence of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. 3
28. What are feminist movements? How have they brought improvement in the
condition of women? 3
29. The table below shows the estimated number of workers in India in the
organised and unorganised sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the
question given below:
Sector Orga- nised Unorga- nised Total
Primary 2 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 17 76 93
Total 28
Total in
100%
Percentage
What percentage of tertiary sector workers in India are employed in
Unorganised Sector according to the table? 3

.32/1/1 7 P.T.O.
 SECTION - D
30. What Explain any three major problems faced by road transport in India. 5
31. Explain three points how print culture developed in India?
OR
Å
Examine the role of missionaries in the growth of the press in India?  5
32. Explain any three recent efforts made to reform political parties in India.
OR
Å
Suggest any three reforms to make political parties more democratic. 5
33. ‘There are a large number of activities which are the primary responsibility
of the government.’ Do you agree to it? Support your view with arguments.
 5

SECTION - E
34. We have seen how British manufacturers attempted to take over the Indian
market, and how Indian weavers and craftsmen, traders and industrialists
resisted colonial controls, demanded tariff protection, created their own
spaces, and tried to extend the market for their produce.
But when new products are produced people have to be persuaded to buy
them. They have to feel like using the product. How was this done? One
way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements. As you
know, advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They
try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
(A) 
According to the source, what kind of images were used for
advertisements? 1
(B) W
 hy were advertisements used by Manchester products for their
products? 1
(C) What information was contained in the label? 2
35. In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices,
faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are
called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/molten
and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s
surface. They cool and solidify as they rise. Major metallic minerals like tin,
copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.
(A) Name a mineral found in veins and lodes. 1
(B) How are veins and lodes formed? 1
(C) Mention one feature each of igneous and metamorphic rocks.  2

.32/1/1 8
 36. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind
of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections,
they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. While these features
are common to most of them, these democracies are very different from each
other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and
their cultures. Consequently, what may be achieved or not achieved under
each of these democracies will be very different.
(A) Explain the fascination for democracy amongst various countries. 1
(B) Explain democracy on the basis of expected and actual outcome. 2

SECTION - F
37. (A) T
 wo places I and II have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near
them.
(I) T
 he place where session of Indian National Congress was held in
September 1920.
(II) The place where Jallianwala Bagh Incident occrued. 2
(B) 
On the same given map of India, locate and label any three of the
following with suitable symbols:
(I) A Nuclear power plant in Kerala
(II) A Thermal power plant in Assam
(III) A Sea port in Chennai
(IV) An Airport named after a leader in Hyderabad 3

.32/1/1 9 P.T.O.
 (A) (II)

(A) (I)

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