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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
(18CIV59)

MODULE - 01

1. The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word…………….which means to
encircle or surround
a) Environ b) Oikos c) Geo d) Aqua

2. The objective of environmental education is


a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b) To teach environmentally appropriate behaviour
c) Create an environmental ethic d) All of the above

3. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least storage
capacity for matter?
a) Atmosphere b) Lithosphere c) Hydrosphere d) Biosphere

4. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
a) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere b) Atmosphere and Lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere d) Biosphere and Lithosphere

5. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the
living things
c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all of the spheres
d) All of the above

6. Atmosphere consists of 79 per cent Nitrogen and 21 per cent Oxygen by


a) volume b) weight c) Density d) All the three

7. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?


a) Fungi b) solar light c) temperature d) humidity

8. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is


a) Bidirectional b) Cyclic c) Unidirectional d) Multidirectional

9. Which Pyramid is always upright


a) Energy b) Biomass c) Numbers d) Food chain

10. In complex ecosystems the degree of species diversity is


a) Poor b) High c) Medium d) None

11. The organisms who directly feed on producers are called


a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Decomposers d) Saprophytes

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12. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a) Food Chain b) Carbon cycle c) Hydrological cycle d) Anthropo system

13. Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem


a) Plants and some bacteria capable of producing their own food
b) Animals c) Human beings d) Fish

14. Which of the following statements is false?


a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem
b) Energy ‘flows’ through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds
c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem d) Respiration process releases energy

15. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is


a) Oceans b) Atmosphere c) biosphere d) Fossil fuels

16. In aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a


a) Consumer b) Producer c) Saprotrophic organisms d) Macroconsumer

17. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by


a) Industrialisation b) Agriculture c) Nature d) Urbanisation

18. Environment is the life support system that includes


a) Air b) Water c) Land d) All of the above

19. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by


a) Producer b) Consumer c) Decomposer d) All of the above

20. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called


a) Prey b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Detritus

21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are


a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants b) Herbivores
c) Carnivores d) Bacteria and other microorganisms

22. Abiotic component includes


a) Soil b) Temperature c) Water d) All of the above

23. Which of the following statement is true


a) Green plants are self-nourishing b) Producers depends on consumers
c) Biotic components includes all non-living components
d) Herbivores depend on Carnivores

24. Primary consumer is


a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Macro consumers d) Omnivores

25. A predator is

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
a) An animal that is fed upon b) An animal that feeds upon another animal
c) Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals d) A primary consumer

26. Access to food is mainly determined by


a) Household income b) Food assistance programmes
c) Human resources d) Society/Community

27. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from


a) Greek b) French c) Spanish d) English

28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?


a) Pressure b) Humidity c) Temperature d) All of the above

29. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is


a) Hydrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Ozone d) Helium

30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface ?


a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Exosphere

31. Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?


a) Forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) All of the above

32. Ecological pyramids are studies of


a) Pyramid of numbers b) Pyramid of biomass c) Pyramid of energy d) All of the above

33. World Environment day is on


a) 5th May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16th August

34. Factors responsible for balanced ecosystem are


a) Balance between predator and prey
b) Balance between vegetation, herbivorous and carnivorous
c) Balance between competing species and biotic factors d) All of the above

35. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Nutrients d) All of above

36. Habitat refers to


a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live
b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live
c) Both a & b d) None of a or b

37. Essential component of social security are


a) Meeting personal growth and development b) Maintaining natural capital
c) Fairness and equity in distribution of costs of resources. d) Community resilience

38. Socio – economic security in environmental aspects involves


a) Fairness & equity in distribution costs for complete existing generation
b) Welfare of the present generation

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c) Intra and inter generational equity of resources d) All of the above

39. A food web consists of


a) A portion of a food chain b) An organisms position in a food chain
c) Interlocking food chains d) A set of similar consumers

40. Which of the following statements are true?


a) Man is not dependent on nature
b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one’s wish.
c) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some percentage is lost into
the environment
d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused.

41. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?
a) Food must be available b) Each person must have access to it
c) Food utilized/consumed must fulfill nutritional requirements d) All of the above

42. Which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialization, in general?.
a) Solid waste b) Water Pollution c) Air pollution d) Economic growth

43. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?
a) Air pollution from dust b) Water pollution c) Soil degradation d) All of the above

44. Sustainable development means


a) Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs
b) Progress in human well beings
c) Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources
d) All the above

45. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialization is
a) Industry should be closed b) Don’t allow new industrial units
c) Industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal
d) Industries should be shifted far away from human habit tats.

46. Mining means


a) To conserve & preserve minerals b) To check pollution due to mineral resources
c) To extract minerals and ores d) None

47. E.I.A. can be expanded as


a) Environment & Industiral Act b) Environment & Impact Activities
c) Environmental Impact Assessment d) Environmentally Important Activity

48. E.I.A. is related to


a) Resource conservation b) Efficient equipment/process
c) Waste minimization d) All of the above

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
49. In order to protect the health of people living along the adjoining areas of roads, one should.
a) Plant trees alongside of the roads b) Not allow diesel driven vehicles
c) Shift them (people) to other places d) None of the above

50. The pollution caused by transportation/vehicular activities depends on


a) Type of the vehicle’s engine b) Age of the vehicle
c) Traffic congestion d) All of the above

51. Sustainable development will not aim at


a) Social economic development which optimizes the economic and societal benefits
available in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the
future
b) Reasonable and equitably distributed level of economic wellbeing that can be perpetuated
continually
c) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their own needs
d) Maximizing the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

52. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?


a) Scoping b) Screening c) Identifying and evaluating alternatives d) all of the above

53. ‘Earth Day’ is held every year on


a) June 5th b) November 23rd c) April 22nd d) January 26th

54. Eutrophication is
a) an improved quality of water in lakes b) a process in carbon cycle
c) the result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies
d) a water purification technique

55. Major purpose of most of the Dams around the world is


a) Power generation b) Drinking water supply c) Flood control d) Irrigation

56. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agriculture practice?
a) Using chemical fertilizers b) Using insecticides
c) Organic farming d) None of the above

57. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is


a) Water pollution b) Soil degradation c) Water logging d) All of the above

58. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains


a) Organic matter b) Plant nutrients c) Both a and b d) None of the above

59. Water logging is a phenomena in which


a) Crop patterns are rotated b) Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c) Erosion of soil d) None of the above

60. The impact of construction of dams

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a) Submerges forest b) Loss of wild life habitat
c) Damages downstream ecosystem d) All of the above

61. Which of the following statement is false


a) Soil erosion affects the productivity of agriculture fields
b) It takes 300 years for one inch of agricultural top soil to form
c) The amount of erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop management
practices
d) Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone

62. Which of the following statement is true


a) Surface runoff does not carry pesticides into streams
b) Water percolating downward through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved
chemicals and contaminate ground water
c) Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water d) None of the above

63. Farmers have a tendency to


a) Use optimum quantity of water b) To over irrigate their crops
c) To conserve water d) All of the above

64. Organic Farming is


a) Farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers b) Enhances biodiversity
c) Promotes soil biological activity d) All of the above

65. What would you do to prevent environmental damage


a) Plant trees b) Halt deforestation c) Control pollution d) All of the above

66. Environmental impact assessment


a) Is a study of feasibility of a project
b) Is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human
action
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of the above

67. EIA study will help


a) Maximizing the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem
b) To estimate the future needs of the society
c) To smooth implementation of the project d) To cope up with rapid growth of population

68. Ecosystem is disturbed by housing activity because


a) Large volume of raw materials like brick, stone, timber, cement, steel plastic etc are
required to be produced
b) Housing is required to provide shelter to growing population
c) Majority of housing projects are concentrated in cities only
d) Standard of living is increased by modern houses

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
69. Environmental impact of mining
a) Brings order into social setup b) Devastation of ecosystem
c) Present mining activity is a sustainable development
d) Mining has no adverse effect on ecosystem as it is located in remote areas

70. Effect of modern agriculture on soil is due to


a) Erosion b) Acidification c) Salinization d) All

71. Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from


a) Soil b) Wastewater c) Groundwater d) Both Soil and Groundwater

MODULE -02

01. Plants use ………..gas for photosysthesis


a) Oxygen b) Methane c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide

02. Deforestation means


a) Preservation of forests b) Destruction of forests
c) Monocrop cultivation d) Agriculture

03. What percentage of its geographical area of a country should be under forest cover?
a) 23% b) 43% c) 13% d) 33%

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04. About …………% of the earth’s surface is covered by salt water
a) 53% b) 19% c) 71% d) 90%

05. During photosynthesis, trees produce


a) Oxygen b) Carbon Dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Monoxide

06. Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their


a) Stems b) Roots c) Leaves d) Buds

07. Major causes of deforestation are


a) Shifting cultivation b) Fuel requirements
c) Raw materials for industries d) All of these

08. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of water due to
a) Phosphates b) Sulphur c) Arsenic d) Nitrates

09. Which of the following statements about forest is not correct?


a) Forests reduces soil erosion b) Provides recreational opportunities
c) Provides a source of economic development d) None of the above

10. India has the largest share of which of the following?


a) Manganese b) Mica c) Copper d) Diamond

11. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes minimum water pollution?
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorous c) Potassium d) Organic matter

12. What is the permissible range of PH for drinking water as per the Indian Standards?
a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 7.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 8.5

13. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?


a) 1.0 milligram per liter b) 1.25 milligram per liter
c) 1.50 milligram per liter d) 1.75 milligram per liter

14. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause


a) Blue babies b) Fluorosis c) Taste and odour d) Intestinal irritation

15. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?


a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plants
c) Urban and suburban lands d) All of the above

16. The movement of carbon between _________ is called carbon cycle.


a) Atmosphere & biosphere b) Atmosphere & hydrosphere
c) Geosphere & atmosphere d) Biosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere & geosphere

17. The depletion of trees is causing accumulation of

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a) NO2 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) O2

18. Earth’s atmosphere contains ______ % nitrogen.


a) 98% b) 12% c) 21% d) 78%

19. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms _________


a) NH4+ & NO3 b) NH3 & N2 c) NO3 d) NO2

20. Conversion of ammonium to NO3 by chemical oxidation is termed as


a) Mineralisation b) Leaching c) Nitrification d) Denitrification

21. Nitrogen fixing bacteria exists in ______ of plants.


a) Leaf b) Roots c) Stem d) Flower

22. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of ______


a) Oxides of Zn & Fe b) Sulphates of Zn & Fe
c) Nitrates of Zn & Fe d) Sulphides of Zn & Fe

23. Livestock wastes release large amount of ................. in to environment.


a) NH4 b) NH3 c) NO3 d) NO4

24. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called_________


a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixing c) Reduction d) Denitrification

25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in ______


a) Western Ghats b) Bandipur c) Nagarahole d) Mangalore

26. ________ are referred to as Earth’s lungs.


a) Forests b) Carbon cycles c) Water sources d) Mines

27. Among the fresh water available in the Earth the percentage of surface water is about
a) 50% b) 10% c) 5% d) Less than 1%

28. Important factor that causes water borne disease is


a) Using contaminated sewage for Irrigation
b) Leaching of untreated fecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c) Discharge of industrial waste water d) By eating contaminated food.

29. Cholera & typhoid are caused by


a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

30. Major sources of fluoride is


a) River water b) Tooth paste c) Ground water d) Food products

31. Hepatitis is caused by


a) Protozoo b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

32. Excessive Nitrate in drinking water causes

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a) Fever b) Cough & chill c) Blue babies d) Gastro Enteritis

32. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of


a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead

33. Mineral resources are


a) Renewable b) Available in plenty c) Nonrenewable d) Equally distributed

34. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by


a) Treatment of disease b) By consuming mineral water
c) By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source of water
d) By vaccination

35. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?


a) Asbestos b) Feldspar c) Phosphate d) Nitrogen

36. Forests are extremely important because they


a) Provide clean water and clean air b) Provide habitat for wild life
c) Provide recreation and a change from the hectic urban life d) All of the above

37. Deforestation means


a) Creation of new forest land for the wild life b) Planting trees in the cities
c) Conversion of forest land for agriculture/ pasture/ homes etc.
d) Not managing the forest properly

38. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:
a) 95% of earths water b) 85% of earths water
c) 97% of earths water d) 75% of earths water

39. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?


a) Precipitation b) Infiltration c) Transpiration d) Perspiration

40. The ground water depends on


a) Amount of rain fall b) Geological formations c) Run off d) All of the above

41. In India ground water is rich in


a) Plains of rivers Kaveri and Krishna b) The plains of Netravati and Kapila
c) The Gangetic plains d) The Deccan plateau

42. The required Iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS is


a) 300 mg/l b) 30 mg/l c) 3 mg/l d) 0.3 mg/l

43. Pick out which is not concerned to carbon cycle


a) Respiration b) Combustion of fossil fuels c) Photo synthesis d) Transpiration

44. Fixation of Nitrogen is done by


a) Lightening b) Fixing bacteria c) Fertiliser factory d) All of the above

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45. Sulphur-di-oxide is used in
a) Paper manufacture b) Textile manufacture
c) Processing of fossil fuels d) Both (a) and (b)

46. Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel?


a) CNG b) Kerosene c) Coal d) Petrol

47. Solar radiation consists of


a) UV b) Visible light c) Infrared d) All of these

48. Reduction in usage of fuels cannot be brought about by


a) Using alternate fuels b) Changing lifestyles c) Reducing car taxes d) Both a) & b)

49. Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant?


a) Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill
b) Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries
c) Release of toxic gases during processing d) All of these

50. The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is


a) U – 235 b) U- 238 c) U – 245 d) U – 248

51. Biogas is produce by


a) Microbial activity b) Harvesting crop c) Both a) & b) d) None of the above

52. Oil and Gas are preferred because of


a) Easy transportation b) Cheap c) Strong smell d) All of these

53. Biomass power generation uses


a) Crops b) Animal dung c) Wood d) All of these

54. Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in the year


a) 1984 b) 1952 c) 1986 d) 1987

55. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?


a) Fossil fuels b) Solar energy c) Tidal wave energy d) Wind energy

56. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources
a) Highly polluting b) High waste disposal cost
c) Unreliable supply d) High running cost

57. ‘OTEC’ is an energy technology that converts


a) Energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity
b) Energy in ocean waves to generate electricity
c) Energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity
d) Energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity

58. Which of the following source of energy is less ecofriendly?


a) Biogas b) Wind c) Solar d) Nuclear

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
59. India’s position in the Bio-gas plants globally
a) 5th b) 2nd c) 4th d) 7th

60. Solar energy is stored in


a) Carbon carbon bonds b) Green leaves c) Fossil fuels d) Biomass

61. Which resources are inexhaustible?


a) Renewable b) Fossil fuel c) Nonrenewable d) Mineral

62. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following


a) Coal b) Fuel cells c) Wind Power d) Wave power

63. Electromagnetic radiation can cause


a) Plague b) Malaria c) Cancer d) Dengue Fever

64. Harnessing the wind energy is done by


a) Wind Mill b) Ball mill c) Flour Mill d) Pig mill

65. Wind Farms are located in


a) River basin b) Plain area c) Hilly area d) Valley area

66. Wind energy generation depends on


a) Direction of wind b) Velocity of wind c) Humidity d) Precipitation

67. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by


a) Solar radiation b) Wind c) Nuclear fuels d) Tidal waves

68. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by


a) Solar photo voltaic system b) Solar diesel hybrid system
c) Solar thermal system d) Solar air heater

69. In Hydropower plants power is generated by


a) Hot springs b) Wind c) Sun d) Water

70. Hydrogen energy can be tapped through


a) Heat pumps b) Fuel cells c) Photovoltaic cells d) Gasifiers

71. Problems of Hydrogen fuel cell is


a) Storage and distribution b) Availability of hydrogen
c) Creates pollution d) None of the above

72. Nuclear power is being produced from


a) Carbon-14 b) Nuclear fission c) Petroleum combustion d) Natural gas

73. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel


a) Carbon b) Helium c) Hydrogen d) Water

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
74. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is used ?
a) Coal b) Petroleum c) Oil d) Biomass

75. Biomass consists of


a) Lignin b) Hemi cellulose c) Cellulose d) All of the above

76. Which of the following is used as moderator in the nuclear reactor?


a) Graphite b) Helium gas c) Heavy water d) All of the above

77. Nuclear wastes is active for


a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 50 years d) Centuries

78. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at


a) Bhadravathi b) Sandur c) Raichur d) Kaiga

79. Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of


a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Sunlight d) All of the above

80. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by


a) Burning b) Cooling c) Sublimation d) Melting

81. Natural gas contains


a) Carbon dioxide b) Hydrogen c) Methane d) Nitrogen

82. Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented
a) Goa b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu

83. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is


a) Middle East countries b) America c) China d) India

84. Cow Dung can be used


a) As Manure b) For production of Bio gas c) As fuel d) All of the above

85. The source of Electromagnetic radiation is


a) Sun b) Wind c) Tide d) Water

86. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of


a) Methane and Carbon dioxide b) Methane and hydrogen sulphide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide d) None of the above

87. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate


a) Biodiesel b) Hydrogen c) Bioethanol d) Biomethanol

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MODULE - 03

01. Environmental pollution is due to


a) Rapid Urbanization b) Deforestation c) Afforestation d) a) & b)

02. Which of the following is air pollutant


a) CO b) O2 c) N2 d) All

03. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution


a) Volcanic eruption b) Solar flare c) Earth quake d) All

04. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants


a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) Detergent d) All

05. Mining practices lead to


a) Population growth b) Rapid urbanization
c) Loss of grazing and fertile land d) None of these

06. Which of the following is the source of fly ash


a) Vehicular exhaust b) Sewage c) Thermal power plant d) All

07. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called


a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm waste d) Run off

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
08. Noise pollution can be minimized by
a) Urbanization b) Maintaining silence c) Reducing noise at source d) None

09. BOD Means


a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) Chemical oxygen demand
c) Biophysical oxygen demand d) All

10. Which of the following industry generates colored waste?


a) Software industry b) Textile industry c) Biomedical industry d) None

11. Physical pollution of water is due to


a) Dissolved oxygen b) Turbidity c) pH d) None of these

12. Which of the following source is surface water?


a) Springs b) Streams c) Deep wells d) All

13. Deforestation can


a) Increase the rain fall b) Increase soil fertility
c) Introduce silt in the rivers d) None of these

14. Which of the following is non-point source of water pollution?


a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plant
c) Urban and Sub-urban land d) All of the above

15. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as a pollutant
a) 40dB b) 80dB c) 120dB d) 150dB

16. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies?
a) Sewage treatment plants b) Thermal power plants
c) Solid waste disposal d) All

17. Smog is
a) A natural phenomenon b) Combination of smoke and fog
c) Colorless d) All of the above

18. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting


a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Wet scrubber c) Catalytic converter d) All of the above

19. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide is true?


a) Forms complex with hemoglobin b) Forms complex with leg-hemoglobin
c) Form by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels d) a) and c)

20. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?


a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plants
c) Urban and Sub-Urban lands d) a) and b)

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21. Definition of Noise is
a) Loud sound b) Unwanted sound
c) Constant sound d) Sound of high frequency

22. Noise pollution is controlled by


a) Reducing the noise at the source b) Preventing its transmission
c) Protecting the receiver d) All

23. Noise pollution limits at residential area


a) 45dB b) 80 dB c) 55 dB d) 90 dB

24. Noise pollution limits in industrial area


a) 45dB b) 80 dB c) 65 dB d) 90 dB

25. Which of the following are non-biodegradable?


a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) Detergent d) a) and c)

26. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?


a) Carbon monoxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Ozone d) Carbon dioxide

27. Pesticide causes


a) Eye irritation b) Skin irritation c) Respiratory ailments d) All the above

28. Blarring sounds known to cause


a) Mental distress b) High cholesterol c) Neurological problems d) All of the above

29. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?


a) Accident involving vehicles that are transporting waste materials
b) Pesticides and chemical fertilizers
c) Improper solid waste disposal d) All of the above

30. “Minamata Disease” is caused due to


a) Lead b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Cadmium

31. Population explosion will cause


a) Biodiversity b) Stress on ecosystem c) More employment d) None of these

32. Which of the following is having high population density?


a) India b) China c) USA d) Western Europe

33. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanization?


a) Air pollution b) Thermal pollution c) Solid waste production d) Noise pollution

34. Which of the following is the facility that the urban people enjoy?
a) Better communication access b) Better quality of air

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
c) Large land at cheap rates d) None of these

35. Urbanization is
a) Local environmental issue b) National environmental issue
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Not at all an issue

36. Which of the following is the ill effect of urbanization?


a) Decrease in agricultural land b) Loss of greenery
c) Loss of water bodies d) All of the above

37. The major cause of global population growth in the 18 and 19 centuries was
a) Decreases in death rates b) Decrease in birth rates
c) Industrial revolution d) None of these

38. The world population in 2011 was around


a) 8 billion b) 6.9 billion
c) 4 billion d) 4.5 billion

39. The average life expectancy around the world is currently


a) Decreasing b) Increasing
c) Not changing d) Stabilizing

40. Which of the following is the problem not associated with population growth
a) Increase resource consumption b) Environmental pollution
c) Food and energy shortages d) None of these

41. The major objectives of family welfare programs in India is


a) Disease control b) Population growth rate control
c) Employment generation d) None of these

42. Population ageing is


a) The increase in the average age of the population
b) The result of decreased death and birth rates
c) The trend where more people live to reach old age while fewer children are born
d) All of the above

43. Which of the following is not population characteristic?


a) Doubling time b) Total fertility rate
c) Gross domestic product growth rate d) Infant mortality rate

44. Demography is the study of


a) Animals behavior b) Population growth
c) River d) None of these

45. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?


a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption b) Planting more trees

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
c) De-forestation d) None of the above

46. The meaning of global warming is


a) Increase in the temp. Of climate b) A planet hotter than earth
c) Solar radiation d) Cooling effect

47. Global warming may bring about the following change in the climate of the earth
a) Increase in the rain fall b) Desertification
c) Drought d) All of the above

48. Which greenhouse gas is known as colourless, non-flammable, sweetish odour & laughing
gas?
a) Methane b) CO2 c) Nitrous Oxide d) Sulfur hexa fluoride

49. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was
a) Water act b) Air act c) Environmental act d) Noise pollution rules

50. Which of the following substantially reduces CO2 emission from automobiles?
a) Bio fuels like Ethanol and bio diesel b) Fossil fuels like coal and lignite
c) Nuclear element like Uranium d) Voltaic cells

51. The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is


a) Vienna protocol b) Kyoto protocol c) Cartagena protocol d) Montreal protocol

52. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emissions are


a) Kyoto protocol b) Cartagena protocol c) Montreal protocol d) Vienna protocol

53. Population explosion will cause


a) Socio economic problems b) Food scarcity c) Energy crisis d) All of these

54. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?


a) Hydro chlorofluorocarbons b) Methane c) CO2 d) SO2

55. Global Warming could affect


a) Climate b) Increase in Sea level c) Melting of glaciers d) All the above

56. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is due to


a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Carbon Monoxide d) Ozone

57. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?


a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption b) Planting more trees
c) Deforestation d) None of the above

MODULE - 04

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
01. The major automobile pollutants include
a) CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM b) CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CH4
c) CO2, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM d) CO, NOx, Freon’s and SPM

02. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of


a) CO & NOx b) SPM c) Aldehydes d) CH4

03. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more


a) NOx b) Particulate matter c) CO d) Both a and b

04. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are


a) CO and Hydrocarbons b) CO and NOx c) CH4 and CO2 d) All the above

05. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared to 2-stroke engines
a) CO and Hydrocarbons b) NOx and SO2 c) Both a and b d) None of the above

06. Alternative eco-friendly fuel for automobiles is


a) Petrol b) Diesel c) CNG d) Kerosene

07. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of


a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Air-borne dust particles d) All the above

08. Which of the following is an air pollutant?


a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Particulate matter

09. The pH value of the acid rain water is


a) 5.7 b) 7.0 c) 8.5 d) 7.5

10. The primary cause of the acid rain around the world is
a) CFC b) SO2 c) CO d) O3

11. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain
a) Reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur in to the atmosphere.
b) Use of coal, free from sulphur
c) Use of electrostatic precipitator & catalytic converters d) All of the above

12. Acid rain can be controlled by


a) Reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions. b) Reducing oxygen emission.
c) Increasing number of lakes. d) Increasing the forest cover.

13. Atmospheric oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is influenced by


a) Sunlight. b) Humidity c) Presence of hydrocarbons d) All of these

14. Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj Mahal is due to


a) global warming. b) Air pollution
c) ozone depletion d) Afforestation.

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
15. The Effect of Acid rain
a) Reduces soil fertility. b) Increases atmospheric temperature.
c) Causing respiratory problems d) Skin cancer

16. The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the Acid rain is called
a) Transpiration. b) Evapo-transpiration c) Leaching d) Infiltration.

17. Ozone layer is present in


a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere

18. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?


a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
b) Ozone protects us from the harmful uv radiation of sun
c) Ozone is highly reactive d) All of the above

19. Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is
a) Oxygen b) CFC c) Carbon dioxide d) Methane

20. Ozone layer thickness is measured in


a) PPM b) PPB c) Decibels d) Dobson units

21. Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around
a) 200 DU b) 300 DU c) 400 DU d) 500 Du

22. Chloro Fluro Carbon’s (CFC) are


a) Nontoxic b) Nonflammable c) Non carcinogenic d) All the above

23. Ozone layers absorbs


a) UV rays b) Infra-red rays c) Cosmic rays d) CO

24. Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain?


a) Results in killing fish b) Causes stone leprosy.
c) Leaches nutrients from the soil. d) Causes cataract.

25. Formation of ozone layer is explained by


a) Rosenmund reaction b) Henderson’s reaction
c) Chapman’s reaction. d) Perkin’s reaction

26. Each Chlorine free Radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules.
a) 1000 b) 10,000 c) 1,00,000 d) 100

27. Freons are


a) HFC b) CFC c) NFC d) Hydrocarbons.

28. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?


a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog b) Ozone is highly reactive
c) Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun. d) All of the above

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
29. Ozone depletion causes
a) Snow blindness b) Photochemical smog. c) Acid rain d) Vomiting

30. Which of the following statement is not true about animal husbandry?
a) It is a part of agricultural activity.
b) It is breeding, feeding and management of animals.
c) It is livestock production. d) It is protection of wild life

31. Which of the following is the purpose of animal husbandry?


a) Conservation of animal husbandry. b) Production of meat.
c) Conservation of wildlife. d) Conservation of forests.

32. Domesticated animals are used for


a) Dairy products. b) Production of fiber. c) Production of meat. d) All of these

33. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to


a) Urabnisation b) Industrialization
c) Increase in vehicle population d) None of the above

34. Ozone hole was first discovered over


a) Arctic b) Antarctica c) Tropical region d) Africa

35. CFCs have been used as


a) Solvent b) Refrigerants c) Blowing agents for polymer forms d) All of these

36. World Ozone day is being celebrated on


a) September 5th b) October 15th c) September 16th d) September 11th

37. Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused due to leakage of


a) Methyl Iso Cyanate (MIC) b) Sulphur dioxide c) Mustard gas d) methane

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

MODULE - 05
01. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1992 c) 1984 d) 1974

02. The Air (Prvention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1981 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 1974

03. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 2004

04. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 1972

05. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year


a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1980 d) 1972

06. The first of the major environmental protection Act to be promulgated in India was :
a) The Wild Life Protection Act b) The Air Act
c) The Noise Pollution Act d) None of the above.

07. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of :
a) Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 b) Air (Prevention & Control) Act 1981
c) Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974 d) None of the above.

08. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (KSPCB) was established in the year
a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 d) 1976

09. Environmental protection is the responsibility of


a) Govt. of India b) NGOs c) Individual d) All

10. ‘Earth Day’ is observed on:


a) 1st December b) 5th June c) April 22nd d) 1st January.

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
11. Which of the followings is NGO:
a) Narmada Bachao Andolan b) CPCB c) KSPCB d) None

12. Which of the following is empowered to take measures to protect & improve environment as
per the Environment (Protection ) Act.
a) Central Govt. b) State Government c) Corporation d) None

13. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents :


a) Center for Science & Environment b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Indian Environmental Association d) None

14. The leader of Chipko movement is :


a) Sunderlal Bahuguna b) Medha Patkar c) Vandana Shiva d) Suresh Heblikar

15. The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 deals with:


a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) All.

16. The Tiger Conservation Project was started in:


a) 1973 b) 1984 c) 1999 d) 2004

17. The objectives of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is:
a) To preserve the biodiversity
b) To maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems
c) Protection & conservation of wild life d) All

18. The goal of National Parks & Wild life Sanctuaries is


a) To promote international trading of animals & their products.
b) To evacuate tribal people from forest
c) Conservation of Wild Life. d) None of the above.

19. Environmental education is targeted to:


a) General public b) Professional social groups c) Technicians & Scientists d) All

20. Which of the following animals is endangered species of India:


a) Black buck b) Elephant c) Fox d) Giraffe

21. Which State is having highest women literacy rate in India:


a) Karnataka b) Punjab c) Rajasthan d) Kerala

22. An International Conference on Environmental Education was held in December 1982 at:
a) Kyoto b) Vienna c) New-Delhi d) London

23. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the Article:
a) 51-A (g) b) 48-A c) 47 d) 21

24. The objectives of Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) are :


a) Immunization b) Health check up & referral services

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
c) Pre-school and non-formal education d) All the above.

25. ISO 14000 standards deal with :


a) Pollution Management b) Risk management
c) Environmental Management d) None of the above.

26. World summit on sustainable development was held at


a) Johannesburg in 2002 b) Rio de Janeiro in 1992
c) Kyoto in 1994 d) Stockholm in 2000

27. An important NGO involved in Global environmental protection is


a) UNICEF b) Green Peace c) WHO d) CPCB

28. The first International Earth Summit was held at


a) Johannesburg b) Rio de Janeiro c) Kyoto d) Stockholm

29. Silent Valley movement succeeded in


a) Waste management in sea coast
b) Canceling the state government Hydel project and saving the Lion-Tailed Monkeys
c) Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala
d) None of the above

30. The committee which submitted its report to Government of India on Environmental
education is
a) Tiwari Committee b) Mehta committee
c) Banerjee Committee d) Agarwal Committee
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ACQUIRED FROM VTU QUESTION PAPER

01. Use of compressed natural gas (CNG) came in to effect from


a) December 2002 b) January 2002 c) December 2003 d) September 2003

02. ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test is used to detect


a) Malaria b) AIDS c) Cholera d) Tuberculosis

03. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Service) is a welfare scheme for


a) Public b) Women c) Men d) Children

04. Karnataka State ‘Pollution Control Board’ was established in the year
a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 d) 1976

05. Environmental protection Act 1986 deals with


a) Air b) Water c) Land d) All of these

06. The environment which has been modified by human activities is called
a) Natural Environment b) Anthropogenic Environment
c) Urban Environment d) Modern Environment

07. Gold occurs in

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
a) Sedimentary deposits b) Placer deposits
c) Hydrothermal deposits d) None of these

08. Percentage of fresh water available on the earth is


a) 2.8% b) 2.2% c) 0.6% d) 2.15%

09. India’s density of population according to census 2001


a) 350 per sq.km b) 375 per sq.km c) 324 per sq.km d) 425 per sq.km

10. India’s density of population according to census 2011


a) 382 per sq.km b) 375 per sq.km c) 324 per sq.km d) 425 per sq.km

11. Anthropoginal activities means


a) Natural Activities b) Bacteriological activities
c) Wild animal activities d) Human activities

12. In which year Hon’ble Supreme Court of India made environmental education compulsory
subject at all the level of education.
a) 2000 b) 2003 c) 2001 d) 2002

13. Contribution of carbon dioxide to global warming from industries


a) 50% b) 24% c) 25% d) 75%

14. Optimum growth of bacteria in favorable pH value of


a) 6.5-8.5 b) 7.0 c) 6.5-7.5 d) 7.0-14.0

15. Earth’s body temperature is approximately equal to _____?


a) 16.4°C b) 16.6°C c) 36°C d) 21.6°C

16. Effect of carbon monoxide on blood, causing


a) H2CO3 b) COHb c) CO2Hb d) HbCO2

17. Expansion of the term WWF is _____________


a) World wild life force b) World wide forest
c) World wild life forest d) World wild life fund

18. First international earth summit was held at


a) USA b) Russia c) Rio de-Janeiro d) Johannesburg

19. The liquid waste generated from municipal solid waste disposal pits is called
a) Solid waste water b) Sewage c) Leachate d) Compost waste water

20. Minimum allowable limit of noise pollution for Human persistence is ___________
a) 40dB b) 90dB c) 45dB d) 55dB

21. Percentage of ground water available on Earth’s environment is


a) 0.02 b) 0.5 c) 1.5 d) 0.2

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DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
22. The world total quantum of water is ____________
a) 1.4 billion cubic kilometer b) 2.6 billion cubic kilometer
c) 0.4 billion cubic kilometer d) None of these

23. Water contaminated with cadmium can cause disease like


a) Itai Itai b) Minamata c) Ouch Ouch d) Both a and c

24. UN general assembly proclaimed the universal declaration of human rights in Paris on
a) 16th May 1994 b) 10th December 1948
th
c) 15 November 1980 d) 11th December 1949

25. DDT (dichloro diphenyl Trichloro Ethane) was discovered by


a) Paul Mueller b) Ernt Hoeckel c) Charles Alton d) Charnokite

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