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Crime Detection Review Questions

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible


in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and
must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of
the
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice

3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to
question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry C. polygraph examination
B. Interview D. interrogation

4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different


and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing C. Espionage
B. Casing D. Undercover work

5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions


are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail C. pony tail
B. casing D. close tail

6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the


subject‟s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail C. pony tail
B. casing D. close tail

7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated


arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing C. Stake out
B. Tailing D. Espionage

8.An examination of an individual‟s person, houses, or effects or a


building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search C. Investigation
B. Raid D. Seizure

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9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to
the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence C. Direct evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence D. Real evidence

10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence


collected during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation C. crime prevention
B. order maintenance D. public service

11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation C. Buy bust operation
B. Inducement D. Entrapment

12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.


A. excellent built C. excellent looks
B. excellent eyesight D. excellent memory

13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
A. close observation C. tailing
B. espionage D. surveillance

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been
taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation C. custodial investigation
B. interrogation D. cross examination

15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at


A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays

16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present


when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices
for wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures C. pro-active measures
B. countermeasures D. tape measures

17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged
criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding
their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol C. Criminal procedure
B. police intelligence D. Criminal investigation

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18. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation C. secondary investigation
B. custodial investigation D. follow-up investigation

19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of


A. Interview C. Investigation
B. Surveillance D. Interrogation

20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent
man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in
connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence C. prejudicial question
B. probable cause D.res ipsa loquitur

21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be
void.
A. 10 C. 30
B. 15 D. 45

22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and
that the person named in his report committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti C. stare decisis
B. sufficiency of evidence D. parens patriae

23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be
committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their
property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial C. criminal investigation
B. order maintenance D. police intelligence

24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.


A. Admission C. Deposition
B. Confession D. Accusation

25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of
some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
A. Admission C. Deposition
B. Confession D. Accusation

26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an


acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission C. Deposition
B. Confession D. Accusation

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27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information
regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview C. intimate interview
B. personal interview D. pre-game interview

28.It means method of operation.


A. corpus delicti C. stare decisis
B. parens patriae D. modus operandi

29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain
conviction.
A. Intent C. Opportunity
B. Motive D. Inducement

30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in


proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction „
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.


A. Interview C. Interrogation
B. Inquiry D. Instrumentation

32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time
of the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept
to a minimum.
A. chain of command C. evidence tracking
B. chain of custody D. tracing evidence

33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense.
Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence C. tracing evidence
B. associative evidence D. factual evidence

34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which
help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the
crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence C. tracing evidence A
B. documentary evidence D. testimonial evidence

35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:


A. sympathetic approach C. financial assistance
B. emotional appeal D. friendliness

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36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method

37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to
one quadrant.
A. strip method C. spiral method
B. wheel method D. zone method

38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the
outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method C. spiral method
B. wheel method D. zone method

39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.


A. Convoy C. Tailing
B. Caravan D. Surveillance

40. Another term for tailing.


A. Impersonating C. Supporting
B. Backing D. Shadowing

41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator
surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness C. Hostile witness
B. Expert witness D. Informant

42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other
people.
A. Bugging C. Mimicking
B. Dubbing D. Tapping

43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who
knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation C. interview
B. rumor mongering D. inquiry

44.An objective of criminal investigation.


A. determine the motive C. rehabilitate criminals
B. identify criminals D. prevent crimes

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45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when,
for example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity C. Flash over
B. Ignition D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very
complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapors varies from one material
to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity C. Flash over
B. Ignition D. Starter

47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to
that of light.
A. Ignition C. Radiation
B. Convection D. Conduction

48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition C. Radiation
B. Convection D. Conduction

49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to


A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene

50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter C. fire starter
B. arson for profit D. solitary fire setter

51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.


A. pack up and flee C. call an ambulance
B. run for your life D. raise the alarm

52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an


asphyxia which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide C. carbon paper
B. carbon monoxide D. carbon dioxide

53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to
the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide C. carbon paper
B. carbon monoxide D. carbon dioxide

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54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building
material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it
fails.
A. fire resistance C. fire proof
B. fire duration D. fire strength

55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided
forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A C. class C
B. class B D. class D

56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A C. class C
B. class B D. class D

57.The following are components of fire except one:


A. Gas C. Oxygen
B. Fuel D. Heat

58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of
origin.
A. Charring C. V pattern
B. Alligatoring D. Pour pattern

59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.


A. Crazing C. Light bulbs
B. Spalling D. Charring

60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish
an alibi.
A. Accelerants C. timing device
B. delaying tactic D. stopper

61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples
are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants C. timing device
B. Trailers D. Stopper

62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant C. timing device
B. Sniffer D. stopper

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63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and
satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome C. pyromania
B. pyrotechnic disease D. pyrophobia

64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”


A. PD 1108 C. PD 1081
B. PD 1017 D. PD 1185

65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent C. gun powder
B. blasting cap D. explosive primer

66.These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except
one:
A. Combustible C. Flammable
B. Corrosive D. Inflammable

67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree
Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid C. inflammable liquid
B. flammable liquid D. corrosive liquid

68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid C. inflammable liquid
B. flammable liquid D. corrosive liquid

69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current
across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc C. duct system
B. damper D. ember

70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
A. explosion C. combustion
B. arson D. fire

71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.


A. class A C. Class C
B. Class B D. Class D

72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction C. Radiation
B. Convection D. Combustion

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73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point C. freezing point
B. melting point D. boiling point

74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid
hazard.
A. point of no return C. start of evasive action
B. point of no escape D. final position

75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.


A. Traffic C. Trip
B. Flight D. Journey

76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more
reference points.
A. traffic report C . triangulation
B. spot report D. accident investigation

77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia C. Energy
B. Friction D. Gravity

78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more
persons.
A. Fatal C. Non fatal
B. Chronic D. Injurious

79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”


A. RA 7160 C. RA 6425
B. RA 8551 D. RA 4136

80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,


death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents C. traffic hazards
B. traffic accidents D. traffic events

81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.


A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident

82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining
him.

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A. traffic citation C. traffic warrant
B. traffic request D. D. traffic violation

83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a


hazard.
A. primary contact C. disengagement
B. secondary contact D. initial contact

84.The following are the three E‟s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
A. Engineering C. Enforcement
B. Education D. Evaluation

85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”


A. RA 9870 C. RA 1017
B. RA 9165 D. RA 6195

86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought


disruption and ego distortion. They are called psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers C. Stimulants
B. Hallucinogens D. Depressants

87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with
delusions.
A. Stimulants C. Depressants
B. Narcotics D. Hallucinogens

88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.


A. Gynecology C. White Slavery
B. Prostitution D. Sex Trade

89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.


A. cannabis sativa L C. deoxyribonucleic acid
B. Papaver somniforum D. methamphetamine HCl

90.The original components of heroin and morphine.


A. Codeine C. Opium
B. Caffeine D. Methamphetamine

91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration

92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness

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and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice C. Addiction
B. Abuse D. Virtue

93.The most common form of stimulant.


A. Heroin C. Morphine
B. Codeine D. Shabu

94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.


A. Heroin C. Morphine
B. Codeine D. None of these

95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.


A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Caffeine

96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy C. caffeine components
B. marijuana D. codeine

97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.


A. drug habituation C. drug pushing
B. drug net consciousness D. drug dependence

98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a


physician‟s order.
A. illegal drugs C. regulated drugs
B. prohibited drugs D. prescription drugs

99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and
functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol C. Drug
B. Poison D. Vice

100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin
and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects

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