CHAPTER 1- Reproduction in living organisms

1 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Offsprings of asexual reproduction are called clones. Why?

Offsprings of asexual reproduction are called clones, because they are
morphologically and genetically identical to the parent and also to one another.
2. Define parthenogenesis.
The development of female gamete into a zygote (new organism) without fertilization.
3. Define embryogenesis.
The process of development of embryo from the zygote.
4. What are hermaphrodites?
Bisexual animals that possess both male and female reproductive organs.
5. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in non-primates/seasonal breeders.
Oestrus cycle.
6. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in primates/ continuous breeders.
Menstrual cycle.
7. How many chromosomes are there in meiocytes of human beings?
46
8. Mention the asexual reproductive structures of Penicillium.
Conidia.
9. Mention the asexual reproductive structure in sponges.
Gemmules.
10. What is life span?
The time period between the birth and the natural death of an organism.
11. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Chlamydomonas.
Zoospores.
12. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Hydra.
External buds
13. Name the vegetative propagule in Potato.
Tuber
14. Name the vegetative propagule in Ginger.
Rhizome
15. Name the vegetative propagule in Water hyacinth.
Offsets
16. Name the vegetative propagule in Agave.
Bulbils
17. Name the vegetative propagule in Onion.
Bulb
18. Name the vegetative propagule in Bryophyllum.
Adventitious Leaf buds
19. Give the scientific name of the plant which produces flowers once in 12 years.
Strobilanthus kunthiana
 20. Name the plant that flowers only once in its life time/50-100 years/ monocarpic plant.
Bamboo
21. Name the protective wall of fruit.
Pericarp

2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples.

The development of female gamete into a zygote (new organism) without
fertilization.
Examples: Honey bee / Rotifers / Bird (Turkey) / some lizards

2. What are hermaphrodites? Mention one example.

Bisexual animals that possess both male and female reproductive organs.
Example: Earthworm / Leech / Sponge / Tapeworm.

3. Mention any two differences between homogametes and heterogametes (Isogametes and
Anisogametes).
Homogametes/Isogametes Heterogametes/ Anisogametes
1) Morphologically similar in 1) Morphologically distinct in
appearance appearance
2) Homogametes cannot be categorised 2) Heterogametes can be categorised
into male and female gametes into male and female gametes
3)Example : lower organisms like 3)Example: higher organisms like
unicellular algae produce homogametes human beings produce
heterogametes

4. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and oestrus cycle

Menstrual cycle Oestrus cycle
1)Cyclical Changes during Cyclical Changes during reproduction
reproduction in primates is called in non-primates is called oestrus cycle.
menstrual cycle
2)Females do not show irresistible Females show strong irresistible
sexual urge sexual urge
3)There is shedding of endometrium No shedding of endometrium
wall
4)Bleeding occurs Bleeding does not occur
5) Example : human beings, apes Example : cow, dog , sheep

5. What is embryogenesis? Mention two important events that occur during embryogenesis.
The process of development of embryo from the zygote is called embryogenesis.
Cell division and Cell differentiation are two important events that occur during
embryogenesis.
 3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate between external fertilization and internal fertilization.

External fertilization Internal fertilization
1) Fusion of male and female 1) Fusion of male and female
gametes takes place outside the gametes takes place inside the
female body i.e., in water medium female body
2) Chance of fertilization is less 2) Chance of fertilization is more
3) Both organisms produce more 3) Male individuals produces more
number of gametes number of sperms, female produces
one or few eggs / ovum.
4)Offsprings are more vulnerable to 4)Offsprings are highly protected
the predators
5) Generally occurs in lower aquatic 5) Generally occurs in higher
animals terrestrial animals
6) Example : occurs in animals like 6)Example :occurs in animals like
fishes and frogs reptiles , birds and mammals

2. Define asexual reproduction. Mention asexual reproductive structures of

Penicillium and Sponge.
Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction which does not involve the
formation and fusion of gametes and is generally uniparental
Asexual reproductive structure in Penicillium – Conidia
Asexual reproductive structure in Sponges- Gemmules
 CHAPTER 2- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants
1 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Papaya plant exhibits xenogamy only. Why?

Because Papaya plant is dioecious plant in which male and female flowers are
developed on different plants.
2. What is apomixis?
Apomixis is the production of seeds without fertilization.
3. Name the innermost wall layer of microsporangium?
Tapetum
4. What is the function of tapetum?
Nourishes the developing pollen grains
5. Define microsporogenesis
The process of formation of microspores (pollen grains) from the microspore mother
cells by meiosis within the microsporangium.
6. Name the outer layer of pollen grain.
Exine
7. Name the organic chemical present in exine of pollen grain.
Sporopollenin
8. What is ‘filiform apparatus’?
The special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip of the synergids are called
filiform apparatus.
9. Name the type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen to the
stigma.
Xenogamy
10. What is perisperm?
Residual persistent nucellus of a seed
Example: Black pepper
11. What is polyembryony?
Presence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.
Example: Citrus / Mango
12. Write the function of filiform apparatus.
Filiform apparatus play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes to penetrate into
the synergid
13. Give an example of a plant that causes pollen allergy.
Parthenium (carrot grass)
14. What are parthenocarpic fruits?
Fruits which are formed without fertilization are called parthenocarpic fruits
Example: Banana
15. What are false fruits/pseudocarp?
Fruits that are formed from parts of the flower other than the ovary
Example: Apple/ Cashew
3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate between Geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

Geitonogamy Xenogamy
1)The transfer of pollen grains from the 1)The transfer of pollen grains from the
anther of one flower to the stigma of anther of one flower to the stigma of
another flower of the same plant. another flower of the different plant.
2)Does not introduce genetic variation 2)Introduces genetic variation
3)It is functionally cross pollination but 3)It is both functionally and genetically
genetically similar to self pollination cross pollination
4)It does not bring genetically different 4)It brings genetically different pollen
pollen grains to the stigma grains to the stigma

2. What is pollination? Mention any four feature of wind pollinated flowers.

Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called as
pollination.
Features of wind pollinated flowers:
1. The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when compared to the number of
ovules available for pollination.
2. The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
3. The flower often possesses well-exposed stamens.
4. Stigma is large and feathery.
5. Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary.
6. Numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.

3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a typical Anatropous ovule of angiosperms.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Describe the structure of mature embryo sac of Angiosperm.

i. Mature Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of Angiosperm.

ii. At chalazal end it contains three antipodal cells.
iii. At middle it contains two polar nuclei or secondary nuclei.
iv. At micropylar end it has egg apparatus which includes an egg surrounded by
two synergid cells.
v. At the base of synergid cell finger like structures called as Filiform apparatus,
helps for pollen tube entry into embryo sac.
vi. Thus mature embryo sac is 7 celled and 8 nucleated structure.

2. Explain the transverse section of young anther with a labelled diagram.

 i. Young anther is generally surrounded by four wall layers – the Epidermis,
Endothecium, Middle layers and the Tapetum.
ii. The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence
of anther to release the pollen.
iii. The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
iv. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the
sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.

3. Explain the structure of megasporangium (Ovule).

(a) Funicle: It is the stalk of the ovule, attaching to the wall of the ovary.
(b) Hilum: It is the region where body of the ovule fuses with funicle.
(c) Chalaza: It is a basal part of ovule. Opposite end of the Chalaza is called as
micropylar end.
(d) Integuments: These are ovule membranes, later they become seed coat. At
micropylar end they form a hole like structure called as micropyle, which helps in the
entry of the pollen tube.
 (e) Nucellus: It is the tissue which provides nutrients to the developing embryo sac.
(f) Embryo Sac: Embryo sac is also called as female gametophyte. An ovule generally
has single embryo sac formed from a megaspore.

4. a) Explain any four outbreeeding devices that prevent autogamy.

b) What is apomixis?
a) Outbreeeding devices in plants are as follows:
i. In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised.
Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or stigma
becomes receptive much before the release of pollen.
ii. In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions
so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.
iii. Some plants exhibit self-incompatibility. This is a genetic mechanism and
prevents self-pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant)
from fertilising the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube
growth in the pistil.
iv. Some plants produce unisexual flowers.
If both male and female flowers are present on the same plant such as castor
and maize (monoecious), it prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.
In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on
different plants that are each plant is either male or female (dioecious). This
condition prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

b) Apomixis is special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilization.

5. a) What are false fruits? Give an example.

b) Write the characteristic features of insect pollinated flowers.

a) The fruits develop from the parts of the flower other than the ovary like the thalamus
are called False fruits. Ex: Apple / Strawberry / Cashew.

b) Characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.

i. The flowers are large, conspicuous, coloured and showy.

ii. When flowers are small, they aggregate in the form of an inflorescence.
iii. The flowers have a fragrance and sweet nectar.
iv. Pollen grains are rough and surrounded by sticky substance called pollenkitt.
v. Flowers are very good places for the insects to lay their eggs.

6. Describe the structure of Dicot embryo with the help of a labelled diagram.
 i. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
ii. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
iii. The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at
its lower end in the radical or root tip.
iv. The root tip is covered with a root cap.
 CHAPTER 3- Human Reproduction
1 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is ovulation?
The release of the secondary oocyte / ovum from the ovary/ Graafian follicle.
2. Name the cells that secrete androgens.
Leydig cells / Interstitial cells
3. What is menopause?
In human beings, menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age, that is termed as
menopause.
4. What is the term given to the temporary association between maternal tissue and
foetal tissue?
Placenta
5. Why is oxytocin necessary for parturition?
It causes contraction of uterine muscles during parturition.
6. Ovulation takes place on the 14th day of menstrual cycle. Why?
Because of LH surge/maximum level of LH.
7. What is colostrum?
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum.
8. Mention the function of Sertoli cells of Testes.
Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the male germ cells during spermatogenesis
9. Name the hormone secreted by corpus luteum.
Progesterone
10. What Implantation?
Attachment of blastocyst to the endometrium of the uterus.
 11. What is fetal ejection reflex?
The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta
that induce mild uterine contractions are called foetal ejection reflex.
12. Name the hormone released by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy.
Relaxin
13. Name the layer of the uterus that exhibits strong contraction during parturition.
Myometrium exhibits strong contraction during delivery of the baby.
14. Name the finger like projections on Trophoblast that appear during implantation.
Chorionic villi
15. In which site of fallopian tube does fertilisation take place?
Ampulla region of fallopian tube
16. Define menarche.
The first menstruation which begins at puberty is called menarche.

2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. List any four hormones secreted by placenta.

Four hormones secreted by placenta
1) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
2) human placental lactogen (hPL)
3) Estrogens
4) Progestogens

2. Mention the accessory ducts of male reproductive system.

The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens.

3. Mention the accessory glands of male reproductive system.

The male sex accessory glands include a pair of seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and
a pair of bulbourethral glands

4. Mention any two hormones secreted by the human female ovary.

Estrogens and Progesterone

3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human sperm.

2. Write the schematic representation of spermatogenesis.

3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the sectional view of human mammary gland.
 4. Define placenta. Mention the functions of placenta.
Placenta is the organic connection between the mother and the foetus which is formed
by the chorionic villi and the uterine tissue jointly.
Functions of placenta:
i. The placenta facilitates the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.
i. The placenta helps in the removal of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste
materials produced by the embryo.
ii. The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which
helps in the transport of substances to and from the embryo.
iii. Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL),
estrogens, Progestogens, etc.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a labelled diagram of human male reproductive system.

2. Draw a labelled diagram of the sectional view of female reproductive system.
 CHAPTER 4- Reproductive health
1 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name the foetal sex determination test.

Amniocentesis
2. Why statutory ban on amniocentesis is needed?
To prevent increasing female foeticides.
3. Give an example for non-medicated IUDs.
Lippe’s loop
4. Give an example for copper releasing IUDs.
Copper T (CuT)/ Multiload 375
5. Give an example for hormone releasing IUDs.
Progestasert/ LNG 20
6. Name a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
Saheli
7. Name ‘once-a-week’ oral contraceptive pill.
Saheli
8. Name the terminal method of contraception in male.
Vasectomy
9. Name the terminal method of contraception in female.
Tubectomy
10. Which period of pregnancy is considered as relatively safe for MTPs?
First trimester (upto 12 weeks) of pregnancy

2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any four Sexually Transmitted Diseases.

Gonorrhoea / Syphilis / Genital herpes / Chlamydiasis / Genital warts /
Trichomoniasis / Hepatitis-B / AIDS

2. Write any two simple principles to prevent sexually transmitted diseases.

i. Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
ii. Always use condoms during coitus.
iii. In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete
treatment if diagnosed with disease.

3. Mention any two natural methods of birth control.

Periodic abstinence / Withdrawal or coitus interruptus / Lactational amenorrhea

4. Mention the reasons for population explosion.

 i. A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant
mortality rate (IMR).
ii. Increase in number of people in reproducible age.

3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What are the features of an ideal contraceptive?

An ideal contraceptive should be

i. User-friendly, easily available, effective
ii. They should be reversible with no or least side-effects.
iii. It also should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of
the user.

2. Suggest any three assisted reproductive technologies to overcome Infertility.

i. In vitro fertilisation - embryo transfer (IVF-ET)

ii. Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
iii. Intra uterine transfer (IUT)
iv. Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
v. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
vi. Artificial insemination (AI)
vii. Intra-uterine insemination (IUI)

3. What is infertility? Give reasons for infertility in humans.

Infertility is the inability to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual habitation / sexual
intercourse.
Reasons for infertility: Physical / Congenital / Disease / Drugs /Immunological /
Psychological.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is contraception? Briefly explain two barrier methods and two surgical methods to
prevent contraception.

Contraception is the method of birth control/ family planning method to prevent unwanted
pregnancies after sexual co-habitation.

1) Barrier methods are the method in which ovum and sperms are prevented from physically
meeting.

a) Condoms- Condoms are barriers made up of thin rubber latex sheath that are used to cover
the penis in the male or vagina /cervix in the female.
 b) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted
into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception
by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.

2) Surgical methods are also called as sterilization. Surgical intervention blocks gamete
transport and thereby prevents conception.

a) Vasectomy- Vasectomy is the surgical contraceptive method in man. Here a small part of
the vas deferens is removed or tide up through a small incision on the scrotum.

b) Tubectomy- Tubectomy is the surgical contraceptive method in woman. Here a small part
of the fallopian tube is removed or tide up through a small incision in the abdomen or through
vagina.

2. Explain any Five types of assisted reproductive technology.

(IVF-ET) In vitro fertilisation - embryo transfer :

In this method, popularly known as test tube baby programme, ova from the wife/donor
(female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form
zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory and the embryo thus formed is then
transferred in to the uterus of the female.

ZIFT [Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer]: In this method, zygote or early embryos (with upto 8
blastomeres) could be transferred into the fallopian tube to complete its further development.

IUT- [Intra Uterine Transfer]: The embryos more than 8 cells are transferred into uterus to
complete their further development.

GIFT [Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer]: Transfer of an ovum from a donor to a female who
cannot produce the ovum, but can provide a suitable environment for the further growth.

AI- [Artificial Insemination]: If a male partner is incapable of inseminating or suffering from

azoospermia or Oligospermia then AI technique is employed. The semen is collected by her
husband or from the semen bank where donors name is not disclosed and introduced into the
vagina or uterus.

ICSI- [Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection]: When the envelops of secondary oocytes are rigid
under such conditions sperms are directly introduced into the cytoplasm of the ovum. It is a
micromanipulation technique.

IUI - [Intra uterine insemination]: The semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor
is artificially introduced into the vagina or into the uterus.
 CHAPTER 5- Principles of Inheritance and Variation
2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is test cross? Mention its significance.

It is a kind of back cross where F1 plant is crossed with its recessive parent. It helps in
finding genotype of F1 Plant whether F1 is homozygous or heterozygous.

2. What are the conclusions drawn by T. H. Morgan from crossing experiment in

Drosophila melanogaster with respect to linkage.
Physical association of two genes is called linkage and nonparental combination is
recombination.
When genes are loosely linked, they show higher recombination and when genes are
tightly linked, they show low recombination.

3. Mention the possible genotypes of A and B blood group individual.

‘A’ blood group : IAIA / IAi
‘B’ blood group : IBIB / IBi

4. Mention two symptoms of Turner's syndrome.

Females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary.
Females lack secondary sexual characters.

5. Why has T H Morgan selected fruit fly for his genetical experiment?
i. Fruit fly can be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory.
ii. Complete their life cycle in about two weeks
iii. Single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies.
iv. Clear differentiation of the sexes
v. Many types of hereditary variations

6. Write four symptoms of Down's Syndrome.

Short statured - Flat back of head - Broad flat face - Small round head - Furrowed
tongue - Partially open mouth - Congenital heart Disease - Many “loops” on finger tips -
Palm is broad - characteristic palm crease - Physical, psychomotor and mental
development is retarded.

7. What is incomplete dominance? Give an example.

Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which the F1 heterozygote has an intermediate

phenotype which does not resemble either of the two parents as the dominant allele is
incompletely dominant over the recessive allele.

Example: The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.)
 8. What are Mendelian disorders? Give two examples.
Mendelian disorders are mainly caused by alteration or mutation in the single gene.
Examples: Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle-cell anaemia, Colour blindness,
Phenylketonuria, Thalessemia

9. Define point mutation. Give an example for point mutation.

Point mutation is the change in a single base pair of DNA or gene
Example: Sickle cell anaemia.

3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the karyotype and mention any two symptoms of Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Karyotype of 47, XXY

Individual has overall masculine development

The feminine development (development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also expressed

Such individuals are sterile.

2. Mention the causes and effects of Phenylketonuria (PKU).

Phenylketonuria is caused due to mutation in autosomal recessive gene leads to lacks an

enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine.

Effects of Phenylketonuria

Phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenylpyruvic acid.

Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain results in mental retardation.

Phenylpyruvic acid excreted through urine because of its poor absorption by kidney.

3. What is male heterogamety? Explain sex determination in humans.

Male heterogamety is sex determination mechanism in which males produce two different
types of gametes.

The sex determining mechanism in case of humans is XY type.

During spermatogenesis among males, two types of gametes are produced 50 per cent of the
total sperms produced carry the X- chromosome and the rest 50 per cent have Y-chromosome
besides the autosomes.
Females, however, produce only one type of ovum with an X-chromosome.
In case the ovum fertilizes with a sperm carrying X-chromosome the zygote develops into a
female (XX) and the fertilisation of ovum with Y-chromosome carrying sperm results into a
male (XY) offspring.
4. Write the karyotype of following syndromes.

i) Down's syndrome ii) Klinefelter's syndrome iii) Turner's syndrome

i) Down's syndrome - 45A + XX, 45A + XY

ii) Klinefelter's syndrome - 47, XXY

iii) Turner's syndrome - 45, XO

5. Descibe Haplodiploid sex determination system in Honey Bees.

Sex determination in Honey bee:

Sex determination in Honey bee is depends on number of sets of chromosomes; this method
is called Haplodiploid method of sex determination.
Chromosome number in Diploid Honey bee is 2n=32.
Offsprings formed by the union of sperm (n=16) and egg (n=16) develops into female
[Queen/Worker]. Later queen lays haploid eggs by meiosis.
Unfertile eggs develop into male honey bee by parthenogenesis.
 CHAPTER 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance
1 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Lactose is termed as inducer in lac operon. Give reason.

Lactose regulates switching on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer.

2. Define transcription?

The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is
termed as transcription.

3. What is euchromatin?

Euchromatin is a region of chromatin is loosely packed and stains light.

4. Why DNA replication is called semi conservative?

After the completion of replication, each DNA molecule would have one parental and
one newly synthesised strand. Therefore DNA replication is called semi conservative.

5. Which chromosome of man has the least number of genes?

Y-chromosome

6. Which chromosome of man has the highest number of genes?

Chromosome I

7. Which is the largest gene in humans?

Dystrophin

8. On which bacteria Griffith conducted transformation experiment?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

9. Name the inducer which regulates the switching on and off of the lac operon.

Lactose

10. Which type of R.N.A polymerase enzyme transcribes precursor m.R.N.A?

RNA polymerase II

11. Name the process in which introns are removed and Exons are joined in a defined order.
Splicing
2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Codon AUG has dual function. Justify.

AUG codes for Methionine (met).

AUG also act as initiator codon.

2. What are the criteria of DNA to act as a genetic material?

Criteria of DNA to act as a genetic material:

i. It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).

ii. It should chemically and structurally be stable.
iii. It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for
evolution.
iv. It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian Characters’.

3. Write the two basic amino acid residues which are rich in histones.

Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine.

3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. RNA polymerases in eukaryotes show division of labour. Substantiate.

RNA polymerases show division of labour in eukaryotes.

The RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA.

The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear

RNA (hnRNA).

The RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA

2. Mention any three applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.

DNA finger printing is used to identify the criminals connected with murder and rape
(Forensic investigation).
It is used to solve the cases of disputed parentage and relationship. i.e. maternity and
paternity testing.
It helps in determining population and genetic diversity.
It solves disputes arising from baby switch over in hospitals
3. DNA is the better genetic material than RNA. Justify the statement with three comparative
reasons.

DNA is more stable because even if the two complementary strands are separated by factors
like heat, they can come together again. But RNA is more labile and easily degradable
because of an additional –OH group in the 2ꞌ position of ribose in every nucleotide.

DNA does not act as enzyme. But some RNA molecule acts as enzyme and therefore, is more
reactive.
DNA has Thymine which gives additional stability. RNA molecule does not have Thymine.
Both DNA and RNA can mutate. But RNA mutate at a faster rate as it is less stable.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. List the salient feature of human genome project.

Salient Features of Human Genome are as follows:

1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.

2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases. With the largest known human gene being
Dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
4. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
5. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of discovered genes.
6. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
7. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
8. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA
differences (SNPs – single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in
humans.

2. Mention the steps involved in DNA fingerprinting

i. DNA is isolated (Extracted) from samples (skin, hair, bone, saliva, blood etc).
ii. The DNA is digested using restriction endonucleases to produce small fragments.
iii. The DNA fragments are separated according to their size by electrophoresis,
iv. The separated DNA fragments are transferred to nitrocellulose or nylon membrane by
Southern blotting.
v. The DNA fragments on the membrane are hybridized with labeled VNTR probe.
vi. Hybridized DNA fragments are detected by autoradiography (characteristic band
pattern is obtained on the x-ray sheet) .
3. List out the salient features of Double helix model of DNA/Salient features of double helix
model of DNA.

1. The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by the J. D. Watson and F.
Crick.
2. DNA molecule consists of two polynucleotide chains helically coiled around each
other to form double helix structure.
3. Backbone of the DNA is made up of repeating units of deoxyribose and phosphate.
4. At the center base pairs are present, Adenine is always bound to Thymine by two
hydrogen bonds (A=T) while guanine is always bound to Cytosine by three hydrogen
bonds (G≡C).
5. Thus both strands are said to be complementary. Base paring is always
complementary, (A=T, G≡C). Because of this is the sequence of bases on one strand
is known, the sequence of bases on the other strand can be predicted.
6. There are 10 base pairs in one helix, arranged at a distance of 0.34 nm or 3.4 Aº ,
length of one helix is 3.4 nm or 34 Aº. Thus one full turn of the helix is of 360º has 10
base pairs. .
7. Both the strands are arranged in are anti-parallel to each other. It means one chain
is in 3'---5' direction and another one in 5'----3' direction.
 CHAPTER 8: Human Health and Diseases
1 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name the causative agent of elephantiasis.

Wuchereria bancrofti / Wuchereria malayi / Filarial worm

2. What is an allergy?

The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.

3. Mention the cell involved in cell mediated immunity.

T-lymphocytes

4. What is Benign tumor?

Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location and do not spread to
other parts of the body and cause little damage.

5. Name the causative organism of pneumonia.

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza are responsible for the disease
pneumonia

6. Name the plant from which cocaine is obtained.

Coca plant / Erythroxylum coca

7. Name the enzyme by which the HIV genome replicates in the host cell.

Reverse transcriptase

8. Name the disease diagnosed by Widal test.

Typhoid

9. What are Interferons?

Interferons are the antiviral proteins which protect non-infected cells from viral
infection.
 10. Name the Diagnostic Test for AIDS.

Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA).

11. From which plant Morphine is extracted?

Poppy plant / Papaver somniferum

12. Name the type of antibodies produced during allergy.

IgE

13. Write the name of toxic substance responsible for fever and chill in Malaria.

Haemozoin

14. Name the disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

Pneumonia

15. Mention the type of antibody present in the colostrums.

IgA

16. Write the infectious forms of Plasmodium which enter human body through mosquito
bite.

Sporozoites

17. Mention the role of Alpha interferon in treatment of cancer.

Alpha Interferons activate immune system and help in destroying the tumor.

2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of an antibody molecule

2. Distinguish between Benign tumor and malignant tumor.

Benign tumor Malignant tumor

1. Benign tumors normally remain Malignant tumors normally do not remain
confined to their original location confined to their original location

2. Benign tumors do not spread to other Malignant tumors spread to other parts of
parts of the body the body
3.Benign tumors cause little damage. Malignant tumors cause much damage.
4.Can be surgically removed Cannot be surgically removed
5.Growth rate is relatively slow Grow rapidly

3. List any two methods of HIV transmission.

i. Sexual contact with infected person.
ii. Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
iii. Sharing of infected needles by drug abusers.
iv. From infected mother to her child through placenta.

4. What is Innate Immunity? Mention any two types of Innate immunity barriers.
Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence that is present at the time of birth.
Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers.
i. Physical barriers
ii. Physiological barriers
iii. Cellular barriers
iv. Cytokine barriers

5. What is an allergy? Name the two chemicals released by mast cells in the body during
allergy.
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy. Histamine and Serotonin are the two chemicals released
by mast cells in the body during allergy.

3 MARK QUESTIONS :

1. Mention any three characteristics of cancer.

Characteristics of Cancer cells:

1) Cancer cells have lost control on cell growth and differentiation.
2) Cancer cells have no contact inhibition.
3) Cancer cells produce tumors.
4) Cancer cells are neoplastic cell and they damage surrounding tissue.
5) Cancer cells show metastasis.
2. Mention three types of carcinogens with an example for each.
1) Physical agent: X- rays, Gamma rays, UV rays
2) Chemical agent: Chemical present in Tobacco smoke
3) Biological agent: Oncogenic viruses

3. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity.

Active immunity Passive immunity
1. When a host is exposed to antigens, When ready-made antibodies are directly
antibodies are produced in the host body. given to protect the body against foreign
This type of immunity is called active agents, it is called passive immunity.
immunity.
2. Active immunity is slow Passive immunity is fast
3. Active immunity takes more time to give Passive immunity takes less time to give its
its full effective response. full effective response.

4. Sketch the diagrammatic representation of Replication of Retrovirus inside an animal cell.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Name the diseases caused by following organisms: Rhino virus (b) Epidermophyton
(c) Salmonella typhi (d) Wuchereria malayi (e) Plasmodium vivax
(a) Rhino virus : Common cold.
(b) Epidermophyton : Ringworms
(c) Salmonella typhi : Typhoid
(d) Wuchereria malayi : Elephantiasis or filariasis
(e) Plasmodium vivax : Malaria
 CHAPTER 10: Microbes in Human welfare

1 MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Mention the bacterium responsible for the large holes seen in Swiss cheese.
Propionibacterium sharmanii. / P. sharmanii.
2. What are bio- fertilizers?
Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
3. Mention the use of Cyclosporine A.
Cyclosporine A is used as an immunosuppressive agent
4. Name the fungus that produces cyclosporine A
Trichoderma polysporum.
5. Mention the use of statins.
Statins used as blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
6. Which Bioactive molecule is used as an immunosuppressive agent?
Cyclosporine A
7. Define Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic
matter in one litre of water were oxidised by bacteria.
8. Name the microbe used in the production of citric acid.
Aspergillus niger
9. What are flocs?
Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like
structures.
10. Mention the commercial importance of Monascus purpureus.
Blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
11. Which bacteria are commonly found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment?
Methanobacterium / Methanogens
 2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Biogas plant.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Briefly describe the role of biological control of pests and diseases.

1. The Ladybird beetle is used to control aphids.
2. Dragonflies are used to control mosquitoes.
3. Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis are used to kill Butterfly caterpillars.
4. Trichoderma species, a free living fungus in the roots of many plants is used to
control several plant pathogens.
5. Baculoviruses like Nucleopolyhedroviruses are species specific and are used as
biocontrol agents against insects and other arthropods.

2. Explain different stages involved in sewage treatment.

Sewage treatment is done in two steps; Primary treatment and Secondary treatment.
a) Primary treatment: These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of
particles – large and small – from the sewage through filtration and
sedimentation.
b) Secondary treatment or Biological treatment: The primary effluent is passed into
large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is
pumped into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into
flocs.
While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in
the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand)
of the effluent. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced.
 Once the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is
then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to
sediment to form activated sludge.
Activated sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters.
Due anaerobic bacteria activity biogas is formed. The effluent from the
secondary treatment plant is generally released into natural water bodies like
rivers and streams.

3. Explain the role of Microbes in House-hold products.

1) Production of Curd: Lactobacillus and other microbes called Lactic acid bacteria
(LAB) are used for the production of curd.
2) Production of Dough: Dough fermented by bacteria, used for making of food items.
3) Production of Bread: Yeast is used for making bread.
4) Fermentation of Food: Microbes are used to ferment fish, Soya bean, and Bamboo
shoots to make foods.
5) Production of Cheese: Bacteria like Propionibacterium sharmanii is used for the
production of Swiss cheese.

4. Describe the role of microbes as biofertilisers.

• The main sources of biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria which help to
enrich the soil nutrients.
• Rhizobium – A symbiotic bacteria present in root nodules in leguminous plants and
fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms which is used by plants as nutrient.
• Free living soil bacteria like Azospirillum and Azotobacter enrich the nitrogen content
of the soil.
• Mycorrhiza- The symbiotic association of fungi with higher plants.
Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza absorb phosphorus from the soil
and pass it to the plants and plants with Mycorrhizal association show resistance to root-
borne pathogens and increased tolerance to salinity and drought.
Cyanobacteria like Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria etc. fix atmospheric nitrogen and
enriches the fertility of soil and also add organic matter to the soil.
 CHAPTER 11: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

1MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Mention the technique used to separate DNA fragments in rDNA technology.
Gel electrophoresis.
2. Name the molecular scissors used in recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology.
Restriction endonuclease /REN/Restriction nuclease enzyme
3. What are Plasmids?
Plasmids are extra nuclear, circular, double stranded DNA present in the cytoplasm of
Bacteria.
4. Write the restriction site of Eco RI enzyme.
5' GAATTC 3'
3' CTTAAG 5'
5. Name the plasmid present in Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
Ti plasmid / Tumor inducing plasmid
6. Name the stain used to visualize DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis.
Ethidium bromide

2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of typical agarose gel electrophoresis.

2. Write any four tools used in recombinant DNA technology.

1) Restriction Enzymes
(2) Polymerase enzymes
(3) Ligases
(4) Vectors
(5) Host Organisms
3. Draw a labeled diagram of Plasmid pBR 322.
 CHAPTER 12: Biotechnology and its Applications

2 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is gene therapy? Name the disorder to which clinical gene therapy was given first.
Gene therapy is the replacement of a faulty gene by a healthy and functional gene.
ADA (Adenosine deaminase Deficiency)

3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. In which ways genetically modified plants are useful?

i. Genetically Modified crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
ii. Genetically Modified crops reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant
crops).
iii. Genetically Modified crops helped to reduce post harvest losses.
iv. Genetically Modified crops increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this
prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil).
v. Genetically Modified crops enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’
enriched rice.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. List the benefits of transgenic animals.

i. Study of normal physiology and development: Specifically designed transgenic animals are
used to study gene regulation and its role in the normal functions of the body and its
development.
ii. Study of diseases: Specifically designed transgenic animals are used as models to understand
the role of genes in the development of diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid
arthritis and Alzheimer's.
iii. Production of biological products: Transgenic animals are designed to produce useful
biological products α-1-antitrypsin, and milk enriched with alpha- lactalbumin that is used in
medicines required for the treatment of diseases.
iv. Testing of vaccine safety: Transgenic mice which can replace monkeys are being developed
for use in testing the safety of vaccines like polio vaccine before they are used on humans.
v. Testing of chemical safety or toxicity/safety testing: Transgenic animals are made that carry
genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non- transgenic animals.
They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects are studied.
 CHAPTER 13: Organisms and Populations
1. Define mortality.
It is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.

2. Define natality.
It is the number of births during a given period in the population.

3. What are eurythermal organisms?

Organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures.

4. How do some species of insects and frogs avoid being detected by the predators?
Cryptically coloured / camouflaged

5. State Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle'.

Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that “two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist independently and the competitively
inferior one will be eliminated eventually”.

6. State Allen's rule.

Allen’s Rule states that “Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears
and limbs to minimise heat loss”.

7. Why mammals of colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs?
To minimise heat loss from the body.

8. What are Euryhaline organisms?

Organisms are tolerant of a wide range of salinities.

9. The Abington tortoise in Galapagos islands becomes extinct of after goats were
introduced on the island. Mention the type of interaction.
Competition.

5 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the population interactions exist among the following:

a) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos islands b) Cuckoo lays eggs in crow’s
nest c) Sea-anemone and clown fish d) Wasp laying eggs in fig fruit
e) Orchid Ophrys and bees.

a) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos islands - Competition.

b) Cuckoo lays eggs in crow’s nest - Brood parasitism.
c) Sea-anemone and clown fish - Commensalism.
d) Wasp laying eggs in fig fruit - Mutualism.
e) Orchid Ophrys and bees – Sexual deceit.
 CHAPTER 15: Biodiversity and Conservation

1 MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define endemism.
It is the phenomenon of a species being confined to a particular area and not found
anywhere else.
2. Mention a biodiversity hot-spot in India.
Western Ghats and Sri Lanka , Indo-Burma ,Himalaya
3. Which is the fish caught in South Africa in 1938, which was thought to be extinct?
Coelacanth

2 MARK QUESTIONS:
1. What are sacred grooves? Mention any two examples.
Sacred groves are large tracts of forests where trees and wildlife within are conserved
due to cultural and religious beliefs.
Ex: Khasi Hills / Jaintia Hills / Aravali Hills / Western Ghat / Sarguja area / Chanda
area / Bastar area

2. Write two examples for loss of biodiversity due to alien species invasions.
The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led to the extinction of many
species of cichlid fish.
The introduction of invasive weed species like carrot grass (Parthenium) / Lantana /
water hyacinth (Eicchornia) into India have threatened several native species.
The introduction of the African catfish / Clarias gariepinus is posing a threat to the
indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers.

3. Define biodiversity. Write any two types biodiversity.

The sum total of species richness or all kinds of life forms of the biosphere is called
biodiversity
Types of biodiversity are :
i. Genetic diversity
ii. Species diversity
iii. Ecological diversity.

4. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.
Dodo, Quagga, Thylacine, Stellar's sea. Cow and three subspecies of Tiger.

5. What is Ex-situ conservation? Mention two examples.

Ex-Situ conservation is the conservation, where threatened animals and plants are taken
out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected
and given special care. Example- Zoological Parks, Botanical gardens, Wildlife safari.
6. Define Endemism. Name any two regions of accelerated habitat loss in India.
It is the phenomenon of a species being confined to a particular area and not found
anywhere else. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma and Himalaya are regions of
accelerated habitat loss in India.

7. Name any two species which have become extinct due to over exploitation.
Steller’s sea cow and Passenger pigeon were two species which have become extinct
due to over exploitation.

3 MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Tropical region has greater biodiversity than temperate region. Justify statement with
three regions.
Temperate regions have been subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, whereas,
tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years. Therefore,
tropical regions had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such
constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species
diversity.
There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher
productivity. This in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.

2. a) Mention four ‘Evil Quartet’ which cause depletion of biodiversity.

b) Among vertebrates, which group of animals has highest number of global
biodiversity?
a) Four ‘Evil Quartet’ which cause depletion of biodiversity i) Habitat loss and
fragmentation ii) Over-exploitation iii) Alien species invasions iv) Co-extinctions
b) Fish