DBMS D.

easy to secure because information from the database cannot

Q1. The Collection of data, that contains information about one be printed Q12. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of
particular enterprise is known as? information is a(n): A. database
A. DBMS B. database program C. operating system D. data warehouse
B. Database Q13. A collection of information stored in an organized form in
C. Data Dictionary a computer is a(n):
D. Data file A. database
E. Dataware house B. DBMS
Q2. A collection of interrelated files and a set of programs that C. operating system
allow users to access and D. utility
modify these files is known as? A. DBMS Q14. A relational database is composed of one or more: A.
B. Database directories
C. Data Dictionary B. tables
D. Data file C. folders
E. Dataware house D. DBMS
Q3. The data dictionary tells the DBMS Q15. In a database table, a _ is a collection of data
A. what files are in database fields. A. vector
B. what attributes are possessed by data B. query
C. what these file contain C. descriptor
D. All of the above D. record
E. None of these Q16. In a customer database table, all of the information for one
Q4. Data Dictionary contains detail of customer is kept in a: A. field type
A. Data Structure B. field
B. Data flows C. record
C. Data stores D. column
D. All of the above Q17. In a customer database, a customer’s surname would be
E. None of these keyed into a:
Q5. Duplication of Data is known as ? A. row.
A. Data Redundancy B. text field
B. Data Integrity C. record
C. Data Inconsistancy D. computed field
D. Corrupt Data Q18. In a database, a _ field shows results of
E. None of these calculations performed on data in
Q6. Which of the following is not the objective of DBMS? A. other numeric fields. A. configured
reducing DATA REDUNDANCY B. concatenated
B. controlling DATA INCONSISTANCY C. key
C. facilitating sharing of data, ensuring data security and D. computed
standards Q19. The number of newspapers sold on May 30 would be kept
D. maintaining DATA INTEGRITY in a field.
E. All are the objectives of DBMS A. date
Q7. Which of the following is not the level of DATABASE B. numeric
ABSTRACTION? A. Internal Level or Physical Level or Low C. text
Level D. key
B. Conceptual Level Q20. Bringing data from a word processing program into a
C. External Level or View Level database program is known as: A. exporting
D. All are levels of Database Abstraction B. batch processing
Q8. Database programs can do all of the following EXCEPT: A. C. importing
store and organize data.B. create graphics. D. mining
C. communicate data. Q21. _ is perusing data in a database as if looking
D. manage information. through pages in a notebook.
Q9. A(n) is a good comparison to a database. A. A. Browsing
computerized file cabinet B. Mining
B. computerized typewriter C. Scrubbing
C. office desktop D. Cleansing
D. computerized calculator Q22. When looking for a specific patient in a hospital’s
Q10. Database software is an example of a(n): database, is more efficient than browsing.
A. DBA. A. surfing
B. application. B. keying
C. desktop publishing program. D. operating system. C. scrubbing
Q11. Advantages of databases include all of the following D. querying
EXCEPT: A. easy to reorganize data. Q23. Arranging all customer records in customer number order
B. easy to retrieve information. is an example of: A. querying
C. easy to store large amounts of data. B. sorting
C. inquiring
D. filtering Q35. _ processing is used when a large mail-order
Q24. An ordered list of specific records and specific fields company accumulates orders and processes them together in one
printed in an easy-to-read format is large set.
known as a(n): A. query A. Interactive
B. sort B. Group
C. inquiry C. Real-time
D. report D. Batch
Q25. The process of would be used when Q36. When making an airline reservation through the Internet,
sending data from a database to a you use
word processor so that mailing labels could be produced. A. processing.
exporting A. interactive
B. sorting B. group
C. mining C. digitization
D. querying D. batch
Q26. Database queries must be: A. contiguous Q37. Producing invoices once a month is an example of
B. unambiguous processing.
C. contoured A. interactive B. digitization C. real-time
D. batched D. batch
Q27. The following is an example of: Q38. In a typical client/server environment, the client can be
Select Student_ID From Students any of the following EXCEPT a: A. desktop computer
Where Major = Business and Credits >= 46 B. mainframe
A. query language C. PDA
B. BASIC language D. notebook
C. HTML language Q39. In a client/server environment, the server:
D. a spreadsheet formula A. processes a query from a client and then sends the answer
Q28. PIM stands for: back to the client. B. cannot be used to access a corporate data
A. personal information manager warehouse.
B. personal inquiry manager C. must be a CRM system.
C. personalized information management D. must be within 100 meters of all client computers in the
D. program information management network.
Q29. A(n) combines data tables with Q40. _ is connectivity software that hides the
demographic information. A. PIM complex interaction between client
B. intranet and server computers and creates a three-tier design separating
C. SPSS D. GIS actual data from the programming logic used to access it.
Q30. A manipulates data in a large collection A. CRM B. XML
files and cross references those files. C. Middleware
A. DBA D. Firmware
B. GIS C. PIM Q41. Data mining is:
D. DBMS A. batch processing using files stored on a mainframe computer.
Q31. A large corporation would use a _ to keep B. locating trends and patterns in information kept in large
records for many employees and customers along with all of its databases. C. querying databases used by the mining industry.
inventory data. D. creating a database warehouse from many smaller databases.
A. GIS Q42. is a new, powerful data description language
B. spreadsheet program used to construct web pages as well as access and query
C. PIM databases using the Internet.
D. database management system A. SQL B. CRM C. PIM D. XML
Q32. For a customer database, a good choice of key field would Q43. A CRM system organizes and tracks information on:
be: A. consulates
A. address B. computer registers
B. customer ID C. customers
C. phone number D. privacy violations
D. last name Q44. In an object-oriented database, every object is an instance
Q33. A key field must: of a
A. uniquely identify a record. A. table
B. be used to connect two tables in the database. C. be located in B. field
a minimum of three tables. C. class
D. be common and used in many records. D. record
Q34. In a(n) , data from more than one table can Q45. When a person uses language like ordinary English to
be combined. A. key field query a database, it is known as
B. relational database a(n) language query. A. HTML
C. file manager B. object-oriented
D. XML C. natural
D. XML
Q46. The act of accessing data about other people through credit Q58. is a full form of SQL. A. Standard query
card information, credit language
bureau data, and public records and then using that data without B. Sequential query language
permission is known as: A. identity theft C. Structured query language
B. personal theft D. Server side query language
C. data mining Q59. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row
D. Big Brother crime uniquely is
Q47. An aspect of the USA Patriot Act is the requirement that called . A. Alternet Key
when presented with B. Primary Key
appropriate warrants: C. Foreign Key
A. citizens must submit to lie detector tests upon request. D. None of the above
B. companies must turn over their employees’ military records. Q60. _ is used to determine whether of a table
C. libraries must turn over their patrons’ records. contains duplicate rows. A. Unique predicate
D. foreigners must be fingerprinted when entering the US. Q48. B. Like Predicate
One disadvantage of data mining is that it: C. Null predicate
A. accumulates so much data that it is difficult to use efficiently. D. In predicate
B. bypasses virus checking. Q61. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used
C. generates few results. A. NODUPLICATE B. ELIMINATE
D. produces graphs and reports, no straight-forward data. C. DISTINCT
Q49. DBMS is a collection of that enables user to D. None of these
create and maintain a database. A. Keys Q62. State true or false
B. Translators i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
C. Program ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
D. Language Activity A. i-true, ii-false
Q50. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields B. i-false, ii-true
called C. i-true, ii-true
A. Relations B. Domains C. Queries D. i-false, ii-false
D. All of the above Q63. DCL stands for
Q51. In an ER model, is described in the database by A. Data Control Language
storing its data. B. Data Console Language
A. Entity C. Data Console Level
B. Attribute D. Data Control Level
C. Relationship Q64. is the process of organizing data into related
D. Notation tables.
Q52. DFD stands for A. Normalization
A. Data Flow Document B. Generalization
B. Data File Diagram C. Data Flow Diagram D. None of the C. Specialization
above D. None of the above
Q53. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a Q65. A Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its
database is established by a own and mostly are
A. Hierarchical schema dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
B. Network schema A. Weak entity
C. Relational Schema B. Strong entity
D. All of the above C. Non attributes entity
Q54. table store information about database or about the D. Dependent entity
system. A. SQL Q66. is the complex search criteria in the where
B. Nested clause.
C. System A. Substring
D. None of these B. Drop Table
Q55. defines the structure of a relation which consists C. Predict
of a fixed set of attribute- domain pairs. D. Predicate
A. Instance Q67. is preferred method for enforcing data integrity.
B. Schema C. Program D. Super Key A. Constraints
Q56. clause is an additional filter that is applied to the B. Stored Procedure
result. A. Select C. Triggers
B. Group-by D. Cursors
C. Having Q68. The number of tuples in a relation is called its
D. Order by While the number of attributes
Q57. A logical schema in a relation is called it’s .
A. is the entire database A. Degree, Cardinality
B. is a standard way of organizing information into accessible B. Cardinality, Degree
parts. C. Describes how data is actually stored on disk. C. Rows, Columns
D. All of the above D. Columns, Rows
Q69. State true or false.
i) Select operator is not a unary operator. B. Force
ii) Project operator chooses subset of attributes or columns of a C. Next
relation. D. Refresh
A. i-True, ii-False Q77. defines rules regarding the values allowed in
B. i-True, ii-True columns and is the standard
C. i-False, ii-True mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
D. i-False, ii-False A. Column
Q70. database is used as template for all databases B. Constraint
created. C. Index
A. Master D. Trigger
B. Model Q78. For like predicate which of the following is true.
C. Tempdb i) % matches zero of more characters.
D. None of the above ii) _ matches exactly one character.
Q71. One aspect that has to be dealt with by the integrity A. i-only
subsystem is to ensure that only B. ii-only
valid values can be assigned to each data items. This is referred C. Both of them
to as D. None of them
A. Data Security B. Domain access C. Data Control Q79. The number of attributes in relation is called as its
D. Domain Integrity .
Q72. operator is basically a join followed by a A. Cardinality
project on the attributes of first B. Degree C. Tuples D. Entity
relation. Q80. The DBMS utility, allows to reconstruct the
A. Join correct state of database from the backup and history of
B. Semi-Join transactions.
C. Full Join A. Backup
D. Inner Join B. Recovery
Q73. Which of the following is not a binary operator in C. Monitoring
relational algebra? D. Data loading
A. Join Q81. In the _ normal form, a composite attribute is
B. Semi-Join converted to individual attributes.
C. Assignment A. First
D. Project B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
Q74. Centralizing the integrity checking directly under the Q82. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of .
DBMS______ Duplication and ensures the consistency and A. Table
validity of the database. B. Attributes
A. Increases C. Relations
B. Skips D. Entities
C. Does not reduce Q83. A normal form normalization will be needed
D. Reduces where all attributes in a
Q75. Which of the following is/are the DDL statements? A. relation tuple are not functionally dependent only on the key
Create attribute. A. First
B. Drop B. Second
C. Alter C. Third
D. All of the above D. Fourth
Q76. In snapshot, clause tells oracle how long to Q84. To select all column from the table the syntax is:
wait between refreshes. A. select all from table_name
A. Complete B. select * from table_name
C. select from table_name C. Union
D. None of the above D. Union join
Q85. If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an Q91. The reasons leading to popularity of client-server
attribute of the other composite systems are:
key, a normalization called is needed. A. DKNF A. More powerful workstations on LANs
B. BCNF B. Needed for graphical user interfaces of end users.
C. Fourth C. Remove computing load for presentation services from the
D. Third system managing a shared
Q89. Identify the criteria for designing database from the point database resource
of view of user D. All
A. No redundancy Q92. The relational model is based on the concept that data is
B. No inapplicable attributes organized and stored in two-
C. Uniformity in naming & definitions of the data items dimensional tables called . A. Fields
D. All of the above B. Records
Q90. The operator preserves unmatched rows of the C. Relations
relations being joined. A. Inner join D. Keys
B. Outer join
Q93. contains information that defines valid B. ii-only
values that are stored in a column or C. Both of them
data type. A. View D. None of them
B. Rule C. Index D. Default Q95. First proposed the process of normalization.
Q94. Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement? A. Edgar. W
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values> B. Edgar F. Codd
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of
values> A. i-only
C Edward Stephen D. Domain Constraints
D. Edward Codd E. Key Constraints
Q96. For using a specific database command is Q100. specifies a search condition for a group or
used. an aggregate. A. GROUP BY Clause
A. use database B. HAVING Clause
B. databasename use C. FROM Clause
C. Both A &B D. WHERE Clause
D. None of them Q101. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced
Q97. Which of the following is not comparison operator? A. > by a constraint.
B. < C. =< D. >= A. Local Key
Q98. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for B. Primary Key
automatic to the target C. Composite Key
data. D. Foreign Key
A. programming Q102. joins are SQL server default. A. Outer
B. functioning B. Inner
C. navigation C. Equi
D. notification D. None of the above
Q99. is a special type of integrity constraint that Q103. The is essentially used to search for
relates two relations & maintains patterns in target string.
consistency across the relations. A. Entity Integrity A. Like Predicate B. Null Predicate C. In Predicate
Constraints D. Out Predicate
B. Referential Integrity Constraints Q104. Which of the following is/are the Database server
C. Domain Integrity Constraints functions?
i) Data management ii) Transaction Q105. To delete a database _ command is used. A.
management iii) Compile queries iv) delete database database_name
Query optimization B. Delete database_name
A. i, ii, and iv only C. drop database database_name
B. i, ii and iii only C. ii, iii and iv only D. All i, ii, iii, and iv D. drop database_name
Q106. is a combination of two of more attributes used as a primary
key.
A. Composite Key B. Alternate Key C. Candidate Key D. B. Privacy
Foreign Key C. Security
Q107. Which of the following is not the function of client? A. D. None of the above
Compile queries Q110. Some of the utilities of DBMS are .
B. Query optimization i) Loading ii) Backup iii) File organization
C. Receive queries iv) Process Organization
D. Result formatting and presentation A. i, ii, and iv only
Q108. is a special type of stored procedure that is B. i, ii and iii only C. ii, iii and iv only D. All i, ii, iii, and iv
automatically invoked whenever Q111. _ allows individual row operation to be
the data in the table is modified. A. Procedure performed on a given result set or on the generated by a
B. Trigger selected by a selected statement.
C. Curser A. Procedure
D. None of the above B. Trigger
Q109. requires that data should be made available C. Curser
to only authorized users. D. None of above
A. Data integrity Q112. Processed data is called . A. Raw data
B. Information C. Useful data D. Source B. title
Q113. is a utility to capture a continuous record of C. list
server activity and provide auditing capability. D. string
A. SQL server Profile Q115. contains data assisting day to day activities of
B. SQL server service manager the organization. A. Control database
C. SQL server setup B. Operational database
D. SQL server wizard. C. Strategic database
Q114. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are D. Sequential database
called a Q116. approach reduces time and effort
A. record required for design and lesser risk in database management.
A. Single global database Q119. The one guideline to be followed while designing the
B. Top-down approach C. Multiple databases D. None of the database is
above A. A database design may be ambiguous.
Q117. HSAM stands for . B. Unrelated data should be in the same table so that updating
A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method B) Hierarchic the data will be easy.
Standard Access Method C) Hierarchic Sequential and C. It should avoid/reduce the redundancy. D. An entity should
Method not have attributes.
D) Hierarchic Standard and Method Q120. Which of the following is not a logical database
Q118. SQL server stores index information in the structure?
system table. A. Chain
A. systindexes B. Network
B. systemindexes C. Tree
C. sysind D. Relational
D. sysindexes Q121. is a preferred method for enforcing data
integrity
A. Constraints A. Delete * from table_name
B. Stored procedure B. Delete from table_name
C. Triggers C. Delete table_name
D. Cursors D. all rows cannot be deleted at a time.
Q122. Reflexivity property says that X - Y is true if Y is Q127. Which if the following is not the type of data integrity.
. A. Subset of X A. Key integrity
B. Null set of X C. Super set of Y B. Domain integrity
D. Subset of Y C. Entity integrity
Q123. Anything that affects the database schema is a part of D. Referential integrity
A. DML B. DCL C. DDL Q128. 4NF stands for .
D. All of the above A. Fourth Normal File
Q124. An instance of a relation is a time varying set of B. Fourth Normal Form
. A. Tuples C. Fourth Normal Fraction
B. Rows D. Fourth Negative File
C. Both of them Q129. A allows to make copies of the database
D. None of them periodically to help in the cases of crashes & disasters.
Q125. In the mode any record in the file can be A. Recovery utility
accessed at random B. Backup Utility
A. Sequential access C. Monitoring utility
B. Random access D. Data loading utility
C. Standard access Q130. Allows definitions and query language
D. Source access statements to be entered; query
Q126. Which can be used to delete all the rows if a table?
results are formatted and displayed. A. Schema Processor A. Forms B. Reports C. Queries D. Tables
B. Query Processor Q135. Which filter method lets you filter the records that
C. Terminal Interface match the selected field? A. Filter by form
D. None of the above B. Filter by selection
Q131. The main task carried out in the is to C. Auto filter
remove repeating attributes to D. Advanced filter
separate tables. Q136. Which filter method lets you filter records based on
A. First Normal Form criterion you specify? A. Filter by form
B. Second Normal Form B. Filter by selection
C. Third Normal Form C. Auto filter
D. Fourth Normal Form D. Advanced filter
Q132.Mechanism developed to enforce users to enter data in Q137. You can find Sort & Filter group of commands in
required format is: A. Data validation A. Home ribbon
B. Input mask B. Create ribbon
C. Criteria C. Database tools ribbon
D. Data verification D. Fields ribbon
Q133.The raw facts and figures are: A. Data Q138. Which of the following filter method is not available in
B. Information Access? A. Filter by selection
C. Snapshot B. Filter by form
D. Reports C. Advanced filter
Q134. The feature that database allows to access only certain D. None of above
records in database is:
Q139. By Grouped report you understand C. Type of report that displays data grouped by fields you
A. Type of report generated by the Report Wizard specified
B. Type of report that present records sorted in ascending or D. None of above
descending order as you specify
Q140. The text you typed in Description column in Table Q144. To display associated record from related table in
Design View is displayed on datasheet view you can
A. Description bar in forms A. Double click the record
B. Report Footer when printed B. Apply filter by form command
C. Title bar of MS Access while entering data C. Single click on expand indicator (+) next to the record D.
D. Status bar while entering data Double click on expand indicator (+) next to the record Q145.
Q141. What is the maximum allowed field size for Boolean Arrange according to size
(Yes/No) fields? A. 1 A. Record, field, byte, bit B. Bit, field, byte, record C. Field,
B. 8 byte, record, bit D. Byte, bit, record, field
C. 50 Q146. What type of relationship exists between a Student
D. 255 table and Fees table? A. One to one
Q142. What is the size of Data & Time field type? B. One to many
A. 1 C. Many to many
B. 8 D. One to many and many to many
C. 255 Q147. Identify the relationship between a Movie table and
D. 50 Stars table:
Q143. Which of the following field type can store maximum A. One to one
data? A. Yes/No fields B. One to many C. Many to many D. None of above
B. Date/Time fields Q148. What type of relationship exists between a Teacher
C. Text fields table and Class table?
D. Memo fields
A. One to many B. Many to many C. One to one C. Columnar form
D. Two to two D. Tabular form
Q149. Which of the following relationship type is not possible Q153. What is the best data type for a field that stores mobile
to realize in Access Database directly? numbers? A. Text
A. One to one B. Number
B. One to many C. Many to many D. None of above C. Date/Time
Q150. For which kind of relationship you need a junction table D. Memo
to reflect real world situation? A. One to one Q154. What field type is best to store serial numbers? A.
B. One to many Number
C. Many to many B. AutoNumber
D. None of above C. Text
Q151. What do you need if you should enforce many-to-many D. Memo
relationship between two Q155. Which of the following field type is used to store
tables? photograph of employees? A. Memo
A. Parent table B. Picture
B. Child table C. OLE D. Photo
C. Junction table Q156. Which of the following method can be used to add
D. Many-to-many relationship can't be created in database more tables in a database? A. Design View
Q152. You can display data from multiple tables by using A. B. Table Wizard
Page break C. By Entering Data
B. Sub form D. All of above
Q157. From which version Microsoft introduced Backstage A. A place to store relational information
View for Access Interface? A. Access 2003 B. A database that is related to other databases
B. Access 2007 C. A database to store human relations
C. Access 2010 D. None of above
D. Access does not have Backstage View Q162. The advantage of computerized database over manual
Q158. You can display Backstage View by clicking on database is
A. File menu A. We can get the information our quick
B. Home tab B. We can put in information quick
C. Control box C. Solve the repeated information and consistency problem
D. Quick Access Toolbar D. All of above
Q159. Why do you pin an item in list? A. To mark it to delete Q163. Circular button with Office icon in it is
from list A. Control box
B. To move it up and make it always available B. Office box
C. To make it default database when you open Access C. Company box
D. None of above D. Control menu box
Q160. The options like Save Open Database Print are Q164. Group names in ribbon can be helpful to
available in A. Group the commands so that when you move one, you can
A. Home tab move all of them together
B. Backstage View tab B. Give a name for buttons on ribbon
C. File menu C. Find the required option by inspecting through them
D. Database Tools tab D. All of above
Q161. What is relational database?
Q165. The options like Relationship SQL Server etc are found D. Home tab
in Q166. Navigation pane is placed on
A. External data tab B. Database tools tab C. Create tab
A. The left of Access workspace D. program dependence
B. The right of Access workspace E. all of above
C. Just below the Access workspace Q171. One data dictionery software package is called
D. Just above the status bar A. DB/DC dictionary
Q167. You can filter the display of different Access objects in B. TOTAL
navigation pane from C. ACCESS D. Datapac
A. View tab in ribbon E. Data Manager
B. Drop down menu at the top of navigation pane Q172. The function of a database is . A. to check all
C. Sort & Filter group in Home menu input data
D. Database tab B. to check all spelling
Q168.The ascending order of a data hierarchy is: A. bit-byte- C. to collect and organize input data
record-field-file-database D. to output data
B. byte-bit-field-record-file-database C. bit-byte-field-record- Q173. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for
file-database D. bit-byte-file-record-field-database helping their users to access data?
Q169. Which of the following is true of a network structure? A. High level language
A. t is a physical representation of the data B. SQL
B. It allows a many-to-many relationship C. Query Language
C. It is conceptually simple D. 4GL
D. It will be dominant data base of the future Q174. The model for a record management system might be
Q170. Which of the following is a problem of file A. handwritten list
management system? A. difficult to update B. a Rolodex card file
B. lack of data independence C. a business form
C. data redundancy
D. all of the above C. increased security
Q175. Primitive operations common to all record management D. program/data independence
system include E. all of the above
A. print Q180. Which of the following contains a complete record of
B. sort all activity that affected the contents of a database during a
C. look-up certain period of time?
D. all of above A. Report Writer
Q176. In a large DBMS B. Query Language
A. each user can "see" only a small part of the entire database C. Data Manipulation Language
B. each subschema contains every field in the logical schema D. Transaction Log
C. each user can access every subschema E. None of the above
Q177. Information can be transferred between the DBMS and Q181. In the DBMS approach, application programs perform
a the
A. spreadsheet program A. Storage function
B. word processor program B. Processing functions
C. graphics program C. Access Control
D. all of the above D. All of the above
Q178. Which of the following fields in a student file can be E. None of the above
used as a primary key? Q182. A set of programs that handle a firm's database
A. class responsibilities is called
B. Social Security Number A. database management system (DBMS)
C. GPA B. database processing system (DBPS) C. data management
D. Major system (DMS)
Q179. Which of the following is not an advantage of the D. all of above
database approach Q183. Which is the make given to the database management
A. Elimination of data redundancy system which is able to handle full text data, image data, audio
B. Ability of associate deleted data and video?
A. full media A. insert B. modify C. lookup
B. graphics media D. none of above
C. multimedia Q186. A transparent DBMS
D. hypertext A. can not hide sensitive information from users
Q184. A record management system B. keeps its logical structure hidden from users
A. can handle many files of information at a time C. keeps its physical structure hidden from users
B. can be used to extract information stored in a computer file D. both b and c
C. always uses a list as its model Q187. A file produced by a spreadsheet
D. both a and b A. is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text format
Q185. A command that lets you change one or more fields in a B. can be used as is by the DBMS
record is C. both a and b
D. none of the above B. printer
Q188. Which of the following is not true of the traditional C. high speed, large capacity disk
approach to information D. plotter
processing E. mouse
A. there is common sharing of data among the various Q190. Generalized database management system do not
applications retrieve data to meet routine request
B. it is file oriented A. true
C. programs are dependent on the file B. false
D. it is inflexible Q191. Batch processing is appropriate if
E. all of the above are true A. large computer system is available
Q189. Which of the following hardware component is the B. only a small computer system is avilbale
most important to the operation of database management C. only a few transactions are involved
system? D. all of the above
A. high resolution video display
E. none of the above B. changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
Q192. Large collection of files are called C. in can be more easily accessed
A. fields D. both and b
B. records C. database D. sectors Q197. An audit trail
Q193. Which of the following is not a relational database? A. A. is used to make backup copies
dBase IV B. is the recorded history of operations performed on a file
B. 4th Dimension C. can be used to restore lost information
C. FoxPro D. none of the above
D. Reflex Q198. The relational database environment has all of the
Q194. In order to use a record management system following components except
A. you need to understand the low level details of how A. users
information is stored B. separate files
B. you need to understand the model the record management C. database
system uses D. query languages
C. bother a and b E. database
D. none of the above Q199. Database management systems are intended to
Q195. Sort/Report generators A. eliminate data redundancy
A. are faster than index/report generators B. establish relationship among records in different files
B. require more disk space than indexed/report generators C. manage file access
C. do not need to sort before generating report D. maintain data integrity
D. both a and b E. all of the above
Q196. If a piece of data is stored in two places in the database, Q200. One approach to standardization storing of data?
then A. MIS
A. storage space is wasted B. structured programming
C. CODASYL specification D. both b and c
D. none of the above Q205. A form defined
Q201. The language used application programs to request data A. where data is placed on the screen
from the DBMS is B. the width of each field
referred to as the C. both a and b
A. DML B. DDL D. none of the above
C. query language Q206. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a
D. any of the above database is established by a
E. none of the above A. hierarchical schema
Q202. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization B. network schema C. relational schema D. all of the above
is called Q207. The management information system (MIS) structure
A. data bank B. data base C. data file with one main computer
D. data record system is called a
Q203. Choose the RDBMS which supports full fledged client A. hierarchical MIS structure B. distributed MIS structure C.
server application development centralized MIS structure
A. dBase V D. decentralized MIS structure
B. Oracle 7.1 Q208. DBA stands for:
C. FoxPro 2.1 A. Database associated
D. Ingress B. Database administrator
Q204. Report generators are used to C. Database application
A. store data input by a user D. None of these
B. retrieve information from files Q209. DBMS stands for:
C. answer queries
A. Database associated D. Database management system
B. Database administrator Q210. Which means a place where data can be stored in a
C. Database application structured manner: A. CPU
B. Database C. Memory
C. ALU D. None of these
D. All of these Q215. How many basic operation performed in DBMS: A. 1
Q211. A database is a complex _: A. Data structure B. 2
B. Memory C. 3
C. Both D. 4
D. None Q216. Basic operation performed in DBMS are:
Q212. The set of data available to the user, the so-called: A. A. Management of data in the database
Start-user data B. Management of user associated with database
B. End-user data C. Both
C. Database D. None
D. None of these Q217. is a collection of programs performing all
Q213. How is describing the end-user data: A. Memory necessary action associated with a database:
B. CPU A. Database associated
C. ALU D. Data B. Database administrator
Q214. DBMS is to impose a logical and structured C. Database application
organization on: D. Database management system
A. Register Q218. is a program or set of program that interacts
B. Data with the database at some point
in its execution: Q222. A DBMS provides users with the conceptual
A. A database system representation of: A. Register
B. A database application B. Data
C. Both C. Logical view
D. None D. Physical view
Q219. is a collection of application programs that Q223. Which structure of data clearly is one of the main
interacts with the database along features of the database approach:
with DBMS: A. Logical view B. Physical view C. Both
A. A database system D. None
B. A database application Q224. A _view of data expresses the way a user thinks
C. Both about data
D. None A. Logical view B. Physical view C. Both
Q220. In which services the processes of database D. None
management and data management are complementary: Q225. A physical view of data refers to the way data is
A. Database associated handled at a its storage and
B. Database administrator retrieval:
C. Database application A. High level
D. Database management system B. Low level
Q221. ACID stands for: C. Medium level
A. Atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability D. All of these
B. Atomicity, command, integrity, and data C. Atomicity, Q226. In logical and physical view of data the set of principles
control, integrated, and direct D. None of these that defines a data model may
be divided into how many parts: A. 1
B. 2 Q230. A data dictionary is a repository that manages : A.
C. 3 Database
D. 4 B. Memory
Q227. In logical and physical view of data the set of principles C. Metadata
that defines a data model may be divided into which part: D. All of these
A. Data definition Q231. Which languages are used to define and query a
B. Data manipulation database: A. Database
C. Data integrity B. Memory
D. All of these C. Metadata
Q228. The overall description of a database is called : D. All of these
A. Data definition Q232. DDL stand for:
B. Data manipulation A. Data definition language
C. Data integrity B. Data description languages
D. Database schema C. Data design languages
Q229. Which is proper subset designed to support ‘views’ D. Database dictionary languages
belonging to different classes of users in order to hid or protect Q233. Which are the not most frequently used DDL
information: statements: A. CREATE
A. Schema B. DROP
B. Subschema C. ALTER
C. Non-schema D. None of these
D. None-subschema Q234. VDL stand for:
A. View data languages
B. View design languages D. View done languages
C. View definition languages Q235. SDL stands for
A. Stand definition languages B. Storage definition languages C. SDL D. VDL
C. Select definition languages D. System definition languages Q240. Which is used to specify the user views and their
Q236. The DDL is used to specify the _: A. Conceptual mappings to the conceptual schema:
schemas A. DDL B. DML C. SDL D. VDL
B. Internal schemas Q241. How many types of DML: A. 1
C. Both B. 2
D. None C. 3
Q237. The SDL is used to specify the _ : A. Conceptual D. 4
schemas Q242. What are the types of DML:
B. Internal schemas A. Low level
C. Both B. High level
D. None C. Procedural DML
Q238. DML stands for: D. All of these
A. Data description languages Q243. Which is requires a user to specify what data is needed
B. Data design languages and how to get it: A. Low level
C. Database dictionary languages B. Procedural DML C. Both
D. Data manipulation languages D. None
Q239. Which is used for data retrieval from the database: A. Q244. Data is manipulated by procedure calls to subroutines
DDL provided by a_ : A. Data
B. DML
B. DBMS C. Register C. 4
D. All of these D. 5
Q245. The programming languages is called: A. Sublanguages Q250. Which are the three levels of abstraction: A. Physical
B. Host languages B. Logical
C. VDL D. DDL C. External
Q246. The DML is called: D. All of these
A. Sublanguages B. Host languages C. VDL Q251. How many types of data independence: A. 1
D. DDL B. 2
Q247. Which command are included in a general purpose C. 3
programming languages? A. DDL D. 4
B. DML Q252.Which are the types of data independence: A. Physical
C. SDL D. VDL B. Logical
Q248. A database management system are very C. Both
complex : D. All of these
A. Art Q253. Which is the transformation of requests and results
B. Command C. Languages D. System between different levels of
Q249. How many levels of abstraction in DBMS: A. 2 abstraction: A. Evaluation
B. 3
B. Mapping C. Both
C. Compiler D. None
D. Precompiler Q258. In which end is really just any application that runs on
Q254. Which mapping exists between the conceptual and top of the DBMS and acts as a
internal levels: A. Conceptual user interface: A. Back end
B. Internal B. Front end
C. Both C. Both
D. None D. None
Q255. Which mapping exists between the external and Q259. Data are stored in as database:
conceptual levels: A. Data files
A. Conceptual B. Data dictionary
B. Internal C. Database
C. Both D. Data administrator
D. None Q260. RAD stands for:
Q256. The related and interconnected software components of A. Rotate application development B. Register application
a DBMS are described by the development C. Related application development D. Rapid
: application development Q261. DA stands for:
A. Logical architecture A. Data administrator
B. Physical architecture B. Database active
C. Both C. Define application
D. None D. All of these
Q257. Which are the types of physical DBMS architecture can Q262. Which is the person responsible for overall control of
be split : A. Back end the database system:
B. Front end
A. DDL
B. DBMS C. DBA D. SDL
Q263. DBA stands for:
A. Database maintenance
B. Database administrator
C. Database backup
D. Database designer
Q264. Transaction is an action used to perform some
manipulation on data stored in the : A. Memory
B. Record
C. Database
D. All of these
Q265. How many features of a DBMS which provide a number
of advantages for data management:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Q266. Which is a DBMS keeps back-up copies of the database:
A. Backup
B. Recovery
C. Both
D. None
Q267. In which the database can be restored up to the last
consistent state after the system failure:
A. Backup
B. Recovery
C. Both
D. None
Q268. Which are the not user in End-user: A. Naïve users
B. Casual users
C. Sophisticated user
D. All of these
Q269. Which are the not features of a DBMS which provide a
number of advantages for data management:
A. DML B. DDL
C. SDL
D. None of these
Q270. Minimal data redundancy means improved :
A. Data independence
B. Data consistency

C. Data integration
 D. Data sharing
Q271. Who access the database occasionally and have
different needs each time: A. Naïve users
B. Casual users
C. Sophisticated user
D. All of these
Q272. Who interact with the system without writing a
program: A. Naïve users
B. Casual users
C. Sophisticated user
D. All of these
Q273. Who interact with the system by invoking one of the
permanent application program: A. Naïve users
B. Casual users
C. Sophisticated user
D. All of these
Q274. The main interface that a native user uses is a form
interface using : A. DDL
B. GUI
C. OLAP D. DML
Q275. The provision of is a major objective for
database system:
A. Data independence
B. Data consistency C. Data integration D. Data sharing
Q276. Who is requested to carry out various operation, such as
insert, delete, update and retrieval vwiours on the database by
the user:
A. DBA
B. DBMS C. DBS
D. DDL
Q277. is a translates into low-level instruction that a
query processor understands: A. DBA
B. DBMS
C. DBS D. DDL
Q278. Retrieval of data is done by using a :
A. Stack
B. Query
C. Linked list
D. All of these
Q279. DML is a languages by which user accesses or
manipulates the : A. Data model
B. Data consistency
 D. Data sharing
Q280. Which is the central component of the DBMS software
that can also be termed as the database control system:
A. Data consistency
B. Data integration
C. Data sharing
D. Data manager
Q281. Which is stored information about description of data
in the database: A. Data files
B. Data dictionary
C. Database
D. Data administrator
Q282. After conversion of high level queries into low level
commands for file access and is
called compiled : A. DDL
B. DML
C. SDL D. VDL
Q283. Which is installs, configures, troubleshoots and
maintains a database system:
A. DBA B. DDL C. DML D. SDL
Q284.Which is incorporated to create an appropriate physical
database that is transformed by a logical data model:
A. SDL B. VDL
C. Both
D. None
Q285. SQL stands for:
A. System query language
B. Sequential query language
C. Sets query languages
D. None of these
Q286. CSV stands for:
A. Command system values
B. Comma system values
C. Command separated values
D. Comma separated values
Q287. PDF stands for: A. Physical data format
B. Portable document format
C. Physical document format D. Portable data format Q288.
XML stands for:
A. Xtensible markup languages
B. Xtensible memory languages
C. Both
D. None
Q289. BLOB stands for:
A. Binary languages Objects
B. Bit large Objects
C. Binary low objects
D. Binary large objects
Q290. Which is refers to the collection of related data values
or items called fields:
A. Record
B. Record blocking
C. Fixed-length record
D. Variable-length record
Q291. Every record in the same size in bytes the file is
constituted of : A. Record
B. Record blocking
C. Fixed-length record
D. Variable-length record
Q292. is the records in the file are of different
sizes:
A. Record blocking
B. Fixed-length record
C. Variable-length record
D. None of these
Q293. In which circumstances not variable-length record
occur: A. Mixed files
B. Repeating field
C. Both
D. None
Q294.The block containing the record is the unit of data
transferred between the _ : A. Main memory and The
disk
B. Data and Memory
C. Data and Disk
D. All of these
Q295. Who is the unit of data transferred: A. The memory
B. The data
C. The user
D. The block
Q296. is a collection of all occurrences of similar types
of records: A. Data
B. Data item
C. File
D. All of these
Q297. How many types of recodes in a file-based system:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Q298. Which are is not type of recodes in a file-based system:
A. Logical records B. Physical records C. Both
D. None
Q299. Which contain information about a file needed by
system programs for accessing file records:
A. File blocks
B. File operations
C. File headers
D. None of these
Q300. The file operations can be divided into how many
categories: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q301. take into account only such records that are valid:
A. Algorithm
B. Searching algorithm
C. Flow chart
D. All of these
Q302. file organization is vital for ensuring the most
efficient access of files and records:
A. File blocks
B. File operations
C. File headers
D. File organization
Q303. New records are placed at the end of the file it is
referred to as : A. Heap file
B. Pile file
C. Both
D. None
Q304. The field which is used to order the file is referred to as
:
A. Sorted field
B. Ordering field
C. Both
D. None
Q305. Binary search accesses blocks: A. Log(b)
B. Log2(b) C. 2log(b)
D. Log(2b)
Q306. Which provides precise partition between abstract
characteristics of the data type and its implementation
specifications:
A. Data
B. Data item
C. File
D. Data abstraction
Q307. ODBS stands for:
A. Off data base connection
B. Open data base connection
C. Oriented data base connection
D. All of these
Q308. DDL stands for:
A. Decode data languages
B. Data define languages
C. Database define languages
D. Define data languages
Q309. SOA stands for:
A. Services oriented abstraction
B. System oriented abstraction
C. Services oriented architecture
D. All of these
Q310. ADSL stands for:
A. Acquired data system line
B. Asymmetric digital subscribe line
C. Asymmetric digital subscribe languages
D. Acquired data system languages
Q311. Which services are insulated by abstraction from the
fundamental physical data:
A. DDL B. ODBC C. SOA
D. ADSL
Q312. EII stand for:
A. Enterprise information integration
B. End information integration C. Enterprise input information
D. None of these
Q313. is another name given to data integration when
use in the management context:
A. EII B. IEI C. GUI D. SUI
Q314. LAV stands for: A. Logical as view
B. Local as view
C. Land as view
D. Last as view
Q315. GAV stands for: A. Global as view
B. Global as verify
C. Both
D. None
Q316. ETL stands for:
A. End transforming and loudening
B. Extracting transforming and loading
C. Extracting transforming and languages
D. End transforming and languages
Q317. GSM stands for:
A. Global source mapping
B. Global system map
C. Global system master
D. Global system mode
Q318. Which are the accepted ways for modeling such
correspondence: A. LAV
B. GAV
C. Both
D. None
Q319. CDI stands for:
A. Computer data input
B. Code data input
C. Computer data integration
D. Computer data information
Q320. How many structure used in ontology based on
data integration application are explained:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q321. is the commercial application of data
integration: A. EII
B. IEI C. GUI D. SUI
Q322. ANSI stands for:
A. Analyst national system institute
B. Analog national system institute
C. Analyst national standards institute
D. American national standards institute
Q323. SPARC stands for:
A. System planning and requirements
B. Standards planning and requirements
C. Both
D. None
Q324. Which can choose from several approaches to
manage data: A. DBMS
B. DDL C. SDL D. CDL
Q325. Which provides mechanisms to structure data in the
data base being modeled: A. DBMS
B. DDL
C. SDL D. CDL
Q326. E-R stands for:
A. Entry relationship B. Entity relationship C. Both
D. None
Q327. Which models a collection of various concepts that are
use to describe the structure of a data base:
A. Data base
B. Data model
C. Data
D. Recorded
Q328. Data at the conceptual level and view level can be
describe with the help of _: A. Data model
B. Relation model
C. Record based logical model
D. All of these
Q329. How many types of record based logical models:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q330. Which are the types of record based logical models: A.
Relational
B. Network
C. Hierarchical
D. All of these
Q331. E-R model entities and their relationship are
corresponded as dimensional tables:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Q332. Which are the not properties of a relation are: A. Row
order are insignificant
B. Column order are insignificant
C. The values are atomic
D. None of these
Q333. Which is the various key: A. Super key
B. Primary key
C. Secondary key D. Alternate key E. Candidate key F.
Foreign key
G. Concatenated key
H. All of these
I. None of these
Q334. Which is a primary domain:
A. Domain
B. Data
C. Register
D. Models
Q335. In which year the relational model introduced: A.
1969
B. 1970
C. 1971
D. 1972
Q336. In which person introduced the relational model:
A. E.F. codd B. F.F. codd C. E.E. codd
D. None of these
Q337. How many components in relational model: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q338. Which components are use in make up the
relational model: A. Structural
B. Manipulative
C. Integrity
D. All of these
Q339. Who is represent a data base as a collection of
relation value: A. Data model
B. Relation model
C. Record based logical model
D. All of these
Q340. The heading of a relation is also referred to as
: A. Relation schema
B. Intension
C. Both
D. None
Q341. In relational model the body of the relation is
referred to as :
A. Extension
B. Criterion
C. Relation
D. None of these
Q342. Which is the set of defined atomic values for an
attribute:
A. Domain
B. Data
C. Register
D. Models
Q343. Which is the name of role played by a domain in the
relation: A. Relational schema
B. Domain C. Attribute D. Relation
Q345. Which is made up of relation name and a list of
attributes:
A. Relational schema
B. Domain C. Attribute D. Relation
Q346. A is defined as the subset of the subset of the
Cartesian product of domains: A. Extension
B. Criterion
C. Relation
D. None of these
Q347. SQL schema is how many types of relation schema
may be defined: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q348. In a SQL schema may be defined as which types:
A. VIEWS
B. BASE RELATION C. BOTH
D. NONE
Q349. CAD stands for:
A. Computer aided design
B. Computer aided data
C. Computer aided database
D. None of these
Q350. Which is refers to knowledge about the meaning of
data:
A. Data types
B. Base relation
C. Semantic knowledge
D. All of these
Q351. In which is do not fully support the domain concept:
A. DBMS
B. DBS
C. RDBMS
D. All of these
Q352. Which is used for searching and retrieving records from
the database: A. DBS
B. DBMS C. DDL
D. DML
Q353. How many types of data structures used in hierarchical
model: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q354. PCR stands for:
A. Primary child relationship
B. Parent child relationship
C. Both
D. None
Q355. Which types of data structures used in Hierarchical
model: A. PCR
B. Records
C. Both
D. None
Q356. it is an1:N relationship between two different
record types:
A. DATA
B. RELTION C. PCR
D. All of these
Q357. Which is a database model used to represent objects and
the relationship among these objects:
A. Data model
B. Relation model
C. Hierarchical model
D. Network model
Q358. RDBMS stands for:
A. Relational database management system
B. Relational database management structured
C. Relational database management search
D. Relational database management sum
Q359. Which algebra is widely used in computer science:
A. Arithmetic algebra B. Relational algebra C. Both
D. None
Q360. algebra has similar power of expression as
relational calculus and first order logic:
A. Arithmetic algebra
B. Relational algebra
C. Both
D. None
Q361. In relation algebra a new term was defined by
codd as _:
A. Relation
B. Relation completeness
C. Relation operation
D. Relation selection
Q362. How many primitive operators of relation algebra
as proposed by codd: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Q363. Which are the primitive operators of relation
algebra as proposed by codd:
A. Selection
B. Projection
C. Cartesian product
D. Set union
E. Set difference
F. Rename
G. All of these
H. None of these
Q364. Which is a unary operation:
A. Selection operation B. Primitive operation C.
Projection operation D. Generalized selection
Q365. Relational calculus can be divided into how many
calculi: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q366. Which is relation calculus: A. Tuple relation
calculus
B. Domain relational calculus
C. Both
D. None
Q367. Which calculus is based on specifying a number
of tuple variables: A. Tuple relation calculus
B. Domain relational calculus
C. Both
D. None
Q368. SQL is used for interacting with : A. DBMS
B. RDBMS
C. DDL D. SDL
Q369. SQL is a languages: A. Database languages
B. Declarative languages
C. Both
D. None
Q370. ISO stands for:
A. Input standards organization
B. Interrupt standard organization
C. International standards organization
D. None of these
Q371. Which is a collection of a defined group of database
object like tables, indexes, tablespace:
A. Database
B. Record
C. Memory
D. All of these
Q372. A is a single non-decomposable data element in a
table: A. View
B. Column
C. Tablespace
D. None of these
Q373. SQL outputs a single table known as the :
A. View
B. Column
C. Tablespace
D. Result set
Q374. How many forms of SQL: A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. None of these
Q375. Which are form of SQL: A. Interactive
B. Embedded
C. Both
D. None
Q376. In SQL which operators on a data base to produce
output for user demand: A. Interactive
B. Embedded
C. Both
D. None
Q377. In SQL which command can be put inside a program
written in some other languages like C,C++:
A. Interactive
B. Embedded
C. Both
D. None
Q378. Data is passed to a program environment through
: A. DBMS
B. SQL C. DDL
D. SDL
Q379. DQL stands for: A. Data query line
B. Data query languages
C. Data query land
D. Direct query languages
Q380. TCL stands for:
A. Transaction control languages
B. Transaction command languages
C. Transaction connect languages
D. None of these
Q381. Which is that part of SQL that allows a database user
to create and restructure data base objects:
A. DBMS
B. SQL C. DDL D. SDL
Q382. _ commands in SQL allow controlling access to
data within database: A. Database
B. Data
C. Data control
D. All of these
Q383. How many interfaces provided by oracle:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q384. In which are interface provided by oracle: A. SQL
*PLUS
B. SQL*PLUS command line interface
C. SQL Plus Worksheet(introduced in ORACLE8i) D. SQL
*PLUS(introduced in ORACLE9i)
E. All of these
F. None of these
Q385. SQL has how many main commands for DDL: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q386. Which are main commands for DDL in SQL: A.
CREATE
B. ALTER C. DROP
D. All of these
Q387. How many data types in oracle: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q388. In which are the data types in oracle:
A. ANSI standard data types B. Oracle defined data
types C. Both
D. None
Q389. A is a query that retrieves rows from more
than one table or view: A. Start
B. End
C. Join
D. All of these
Q390. A condition is referred to as :
A. Join in SQL
B. Join condition
C. Both
D. None
Q391. Which oracle is the join condition is specified
using the WHERE clause: A. Oracle 9i
B. Oracle 8i
C. Pre-oracle 9i
D. Pre-oracle 8i
Q392. Oracle-9i is supported by the syntax:
A. ANSI SQL-96
B. ANSI SQL-97
C. ANSI SQL-98
D. ANSI SQL-99
Q393. How many join types in join condition: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q394. Which are the join types in join condition: A.
Cross join
B. Natural join
C. Join with USING clause
D. Outer join
E. Join with ON clause
F. All of these
Q395. How many tables in a join query have no join
condition:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. None of these
Q396. Which product is returned in a join query have no join
condition: A. Equijoins
B. Cartesian
C. Both
D. None
Q397. Which is a join condition contains an equality operator:
A. Equijoins
B. Cartesian
C. Both
D. None
Q398. Which command defines its columns, integrity
constraint in create table: A. Create command
B. Drop table command
C. Alter table command
D. All of these
Q399. It refers to set of one or more columns that designates
the key in a referential integrity constraint:
A. Select key
B. Foreign key
C. Write key
D. None of these
Q400. Which constraint that requires that the column contain a
value when it is initially inserted into the table:
A. IS NULL
B. NOT NULL C. UNIQUE
D. None
Q401. Which constraint that identifies a column or
combination of columns as a unique key: A. IS NULL
B. NOT NULL C. UNIQUE
D. None
Q402. Which command is use for removing a table and all its
data from the database: A. Create command
B. Drop table command
C. Alter table command
D. All of these
Q403. Which command that allows the removal of all rows
from a table but flushes a table more efficiently since no
rollback information is retained:
A. TRUNCATE command
B. Create command
C. Drop table command
D. Alter table command
Q404. Which join refers to join records from the write table
that have no matching key in the left table are include in the
result set:
A. Left outer join
B. Right outer join C. Full outer join D. Half outer join
Q405. How many set operations supports the oracle SQL: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q406. Which are the set operations supports the oracle SQL:
A. UNION
B. UNION ALL C. INTERSECT D. MINUS
E. All of these
Q407. _ operator merges the result sets of two component
queries:
A. UNION
B. UNION ALL C. INTERSECT D. MINUS
Q408. How many component queries are combined using the
set operators: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q409. In precedence of set operators the expression is
evaluated from : A. Left to Left
B. Right to Right
C. Left to Right
D. Right to Left
Q410. View in SQL a view may be defined as a : A. Stored
query
B. Virtual table
C. Both
D. None
Q411. Which views is using in several advantages: A.
Simplicity
B. Security
C. User reports D. Data integrity E. All of these
Q412. How many types of views in SQL: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q413. Which are the types of views in SQL: A. Inline view
B. Database view
C. Materialized view
D. All of these
Q414. Which operation are allowed in a join view:
A. UPDATE B. INSERT C. DELETE
D. All of these
Q415. The materialized view was introduced by: A. Oracle 6
B. Oracle 7
C. Oracle 8
D. Oracle 9
Q416. We can delete from join view provided there is
key preserved table in the
join:
A. One and Only One
B. One and Two
C. Two and One
D. None of these
Q417. Which view that contains more than one table in the top-
level FROM clause of the
SELECT statement: A. Join view
B. Datable join view
C. Updatable join view
D. All of these
Q418. Which option is used to create a view as a constrained
view and prohibit specific insert
and update operations with the view: A. DATABASE
B. WITH CHECK OPTION C. WITH WRITE OPTION D.
WITH OPTION
Q419. Which command is used to add the views to the
database: A. DATABASE VIEW
B. CREATE VIEW
C. CREATE OPTION D. None of these
Q420. Which option is used with the WHERE clause: A.
DATABASE
B. WITH CHECK OPTION
C. WITH WRITE OPTION D. WITH OPTION
Q421. Which option may be used to create the inline view as
a constrained view: A. DATABASE
B. WITH CHECK OPTION
C. WITH WRITE OPTION D. WITH OPTION
Q422. In which year ORACLE, an SQL product was
released:
A. 1976
B. 1977
C. 1978
D. 1979
Q423. The prototype for SQL was originally developed by:
A. INTEL
B. APPLE
C. IBM
D. All of these
Q424. In which year relational algebra became prominent
after the relational model of
database was published: A. 1969
B. 1970
C. 1971
D. 1972
Q425. Relational algebra became prominent after the
relational model of database was
published by: A. Codds
B. F.F. codd
C. E.E. codd
D. None of these
Q426. Which is an ANSI standard and has many different
versions:
A. IBM B. SQL
C. RDBMS
D. ORACLE
Q427. Which is used for interfacing with RDBMS: A. IBM
B. SQL
C. ANSI
D. ORACLE
Q428. Which is the basis for SQL and also for all other
contemporary database system like
MS SQL Server, IBM DB2, Oracle, My SQL and
MICROSOFT Access: A. DDL
B. SDL
C. RDBMS
D. None of these
Q429. FD stands for:
A. Functional dependency
B. Facilitate dependency
C. Functional data
D. Facilitate data
Q430. In which model of database data is stored in tables:
A. Network model
B. Relational model
C. Hierarchical model
D. None of these
Q431. The relational database model and after that by a
researcher at : A. IBM
B. Apple
C. Intel
D. All of these
Q432. The database containing tables related to each other that
help in the smooth processing
of data is called : A. Service database
B. Relation database
C. Related database
D. None of these
Q433. A table can be defined as a set of :
A. Rows
B. Columns
C. Both
D. None
Q434. Which is very essential as no single set has a specific sot
order for its elements: A. Rows
B. Columns
C. Tables
D. All of these
Q435. How many types of keys in relation database design: A.
Primary key
B. Candidate key
C. Foreign key
D. All of these
Q436. Which keys are used that are a column in the table: A.
Primary key
B. Candidate key
C. Foreign key
D. All of these
Q437. Which key is referencing a primary key in a table: A.
Primary key
B. Candidate key
C. Foreign key
D. All of these
Q438. Which key is used to fined the customer from the table:
A. Primary key
B. Candidate key
C. Foreign key
D. All of these
Q439. Which key have a common meaning:
A. Foreign key B. Primary key C. Both
D. None
Q440. A domain is a collection of values from where the
columns are : A. Deleted
B. Created
C. Maintained
D. All of these
Q441. Which access provides a partial support to domains:
A. Microsoft
B. Microprocessor C. Microcomputer D. Memory
Q442. Which database relationship is considered only
between pairs of tables: A. Service database
B. Relational database
C. Related database
D. None of these
Q443. In relationships how many different ways in which
two tables may be related: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q444. In which ways two tables may be related:
A. One-one
B. One-many C. Many-many D. All of these
Q445. Which rules are defined in relational models they
from as an essential part of any relation database:
A. Integrity rules
B. Database C. Record D. Memory
Q446. How many types of integrity rules: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q447. Which are the types of integrity rule:
A. General
B. Database specific
C. Both
D. None
Q448. How many general rules in a relational model and
being general rules these are
applicable to all database: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q449. Which rules are know as ’entity integrity’ and
‘referential integrity’:
A. General
B. Database specific
C. Both
D. None
Q450. _ states that primary keys should not be null:
A. Entity integrity
B. Referential integrity
C. Both
D. None
Q451. Integrity constraints that do not fall under the
preceding two integrity rules are
referred to as : A. Entity integrity rule
B. Referential integrity rule
C. General integrity rule
D. Database specific integrity rule
Q452. Which has support for specification of global rule
applicable to the whole table:
A. Microsoft access1.0
B. Microsoft access1.5
C. Microsoft access2.0
D. Microsoft access2.5
Q453. In creating a table a row contains: A. Memory
B. Record
C. Field
D. None
Q454. In creating a table a column contains:
A. Memory B. Record C. Field
D. None
Q455. Which have not have client/server architecture: A.
DBS
B. DBMS C. RDBMS
D. All of these
Q456. Which command creates database objects like
tables views and indexes: A. Create command
B. Update command
C. Both
D. None
Q457. Which command enables alteration the data stored in
existing records: A. Create command
B. Update command
C. Deletion command
D. All of these
Q458. Which query joins many dimension of tables to a fact
table which contains large
amount of rows and uses aggregate: A. IBM
B. SQL C. ANSI
D. ORACLE
Q459. Which valued facts formalize the concept of
functional dependency: A. Single-valued
B. Double-valued
C. Both
D. None
Q460. Which relationship model provides a starting point
for identifying schemas and integrity constraints:
A. Entity
B. Referential
C. Both
D. None
Q461. FD stands for: A. Formal dependency
B. Functional dependency
C. Fact dependency
D. Superset dependency
Q462. Which is derived from mathematical theory:
A. IBM B. SQL C. ANSI D. FD
Q463. Which are dependent on the information of what can
be stored in the relation and serve as integrity constraints:
A. IBM
B. SQL C. ANSI D. FD
Q464. A relation state r of R that satisfies the functional
dependency constraints is
called of R:
A. Legal relation state
B. Unlegal relation state
C. FD
D. All of these
Q465. How many various types of dependencies: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q466. Which are the dependencies types: A. Full functional
dependency
B. Partial dependency
C. Trivial functional dependency
D. All of these
Q467. FDs are the types of constraints that are based on
_: A. Key
B. Key revisited
C. Superset key
D. None of these
Q468. What is a super key: A. Key
B. Key revisited
C. Superset key
D. None of these
Q469. Which s essential a business problem not a data
problem:
A. Data
B. Database
C. Database design
D. All of these
Q470. Which is primarily the result of a thorough
understanding of information about an enterprise:
A. Data
B. Database
C. Database design
D. Data modeling
Q471. McFadden has defined normalization in his which
book : A. Database modern management
B. Management database of modern
C. Modern database management
D. Database management
Q472. The database design prevents some data from being
represented due to :
A. Deletion anomalies B. Insertion anomalies C. Update
anomaly
D. None of these
Q473. How many types of insertion anomalies: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q474. Who developed the normalization process: A. E.F.
codd
B. F.F. codd
C. E.E. codd
D. None of these
Q475. E.F.Codd developed the normalization process in the
which early: A. 1969
B. 1970
C. 1971
D. 1972
Q476. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that
design by examining the relationship between attributes:
A. Functional dependency
B. Database modeling
C. Normalization
D. Decomposition
Q477. Which is the process of breaking a relation into
multiple relations: A. Functional dependency
B. Database modeling
C. Normalization
D. Decomposition
Q478. Which formal method that locates and analyses relation
schemas on the basis of their primary, candidate keys, and the
FD’s that are present among the attributes of these schemas:
A. Functional dependency
B. Database modeling
C. Normalization
D. Decomposition
Q479. In decomposition technique of splitting a relation into
relation: A. ONE or MORE
B. TWO or MORE
C .THREE or MORE D. FOUR or MORE
Q480. Codd suggested how many forms in normalization
process:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q481. Consequently R.Boyce-Codd jointly launched powerful
definition for the thired normal form called :
A. Boyce-Codd normal form
B. First normal form
C. Second normal form
D. All of these
Q482. BCNF stands for:
A. Basic -Codd normal form B. Build -Codd normal form C.
Boyce-Codd normal form D. None of these
Q483. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is
minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups:
A. 1NF B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. All of these
Q484. Which forms every non-prime attribute is fully
dependent functionally on the candidate key of a relational
schema:
A. 1NF
B. 2NF C. 3NF D. 5NF
Q485. Which forms is required when although NF is present
more normalization is required: A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF D. 4NF
Q486. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an
individual entity:
A. 2NF B. 3NF C. 4NF D. 5NF
Q487. PJNF stands form:
A. Practically –join normal form
B. Project –join normal form
C. Pages –join normal form
D. Programming –join normal form
Q488. Which forms are based on the concept of functional
dependency: A. 1NF
B. 2NF C. 3NF D. 4NF
Q489. Which one is based on multi-valued dependency: A.
First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Q490. Which is one of the major important components of the
relational database: A. Query execution
B. Query process
C. Query optimizer
D. Query transaction
Q491. Which is refers to the process of restoring the data that
has been stored in a compter: A. Retrieve
B. Backup
C. Recovery
D. Deadlock
Q492. Query processing refers to technique of maintaining
managing and manipulating data
stored with in the computer system by using queries: A.
DBMS
B. RDBMS
C. SQL
D. None of these
Q493. How many major stages of query processing: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q494. Which are the major stages of query processing: A.
Query execution
B. Query optimizer
C. Both
D. None
Q495. In query processor which ordering is related to hash joins
by SQL server 7.0:
A. Interesting ordering
B. Index intersection
C. Index joins
D. Parallel queries
Q496. Which Microsoft SQL server makes selection of the
most appropriate index every table even if there are many
predicates in the query:
A. Microsoft SQL server6.0
B. Microsoft SQL server6.5
C. Microsoft SQL server7.0
D. Microsoft SQL server7.5
Q497. Which is implement it to the index intersection in index
joins: A. SQL server6.0
B. SQL server6.5
C. SQL server7.0
D. SQL server7.5
Q498. Which server can joins the indexes when only multiple
indexes combined can cover the
query: A. SQL
B. DBMS
C. RDBMS
D. All of these
Q499. How many types of disk I/O:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q500. In which is types of I/O disk:
A. Random I/O
B. Sequential I/O C. Both
D. None
Q501. Choosing for large and non-indexed tables, specifically
for intermediate results can be termed as :
A. Hashing
B. Parallelism
C. Disk
D. Deadlock
Q502. SMP stands for:
A. System multi-processing
B. Server multi-processing
C. Symmetric multi-processing
D. Securing multi-processing
Q503. Which in the database which is a software component in
the RDBMS that carries out
analysis of SQL statement for finding the best way for its
execution: A. Query execution
B. Query process
C. Query optimizer
D. Query transaction
Q504. Which can be defined as the method in which the
selected plan is executed at the query
optimization stages: A. Query execution B. Query process
C. Query optimizer
D. Query transaction
Q505. Which refers to technique of maintaining, managing and
manipulating data store
within the computer system by using SQL queries: A. Query
execution
B. Query processing C. Query optimizer D. Query transaction
Q506. Which is the method of processing the plan selected
throughout query optimization: A. Query execution
B. Query process
C. Query optimizer
D. Query transaction
Q507. Which refers to a property of computer to run several
operation simultaneously and possible as computers await
response of each other:
A. Concurrency
B. Deadlock
C. Backup
D. Recovery
Q508. Which is refers to a stalemate situation due to which no
further progress is possible as computer await response of each
other:
A. Concurrency
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery
Q509. Which is a duplicate copy of a file program that is
stored on a different storage media than the original location:
A. Concurrency
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery
Q510. Which is duplication of computer operations and
routine backups to combat any unforeseen problems:
A. Concurrency
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery
Q511. Optimization that is basically related to the rewriter
module is termed as : A. Semantic query
optimization
B. Global query optimization
C. Both
D. None
Q512. Optimization basically related to the Rewrite module is
termed as :
A. Semantic query optimization
B. Global query optimization
C. Both
D. None
Q513. Database security helps organizations to protect data
from : A. Internal users
B. External users
C. Non-external users
D. Non internal users
Q514. Copying files to secondary or specific devices is known
as :
A. Retrieve B. Backup C. Recovery D. Deadlock
Q515. How many types of recovery control techniques: A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q516. Which are types of recovery control techniques: A.
Deferred update
B. Immediate update
C. Both
D. None
Q517. Analysis of an existing system starts when a customer
request either for computerizing
his :
A. Non-computerized operations
B. Computerized operations
C. Relational operation
D. Database operation
Q518. Which is done by developers is centered on input and
output expected by the customer: A. Requires interaction
B. Analysis of starting C. Analysis of existing D. None of these
Q519. What dose a system design include: A. I/O devices
B. CPU
C. Storage unit
D. All of these
Q520. Which are used by developers to extrapolate
complexities of real world into a computer based model:
A. Data analysis techniques
B. Data analysis model
C. Data structure
D. Data analysis
Q521. A conceptual data model defines the structure of the data
and method or processes that use:
A. File
B. Data
C. Operation
D. Testing
Q522. CDA stands for:
A. Confirmatory data analysis
Q523. EDA stands for:
A. Exploratory data analysis
Q524. WWW stands for: A. World wide web
Q525. Which is the forerunner of data analysis having close
link with data visualization and
data dissemination:
A. Data analysis model
B. Data structure
C. Data analysis
D. Data integration
Q526. In preliminary and final designs the design of physical
database focuses the way data is
physically : A. Delete
B. Start C. Stored D. Read
Q527. Primary steps for converting a logical data model to
preliminary physical data model are:
A. Converting entities into file
B. Converting relationship for accessing paths using keys
C. Adding
D. De-normalization
E. Tuning
F. Converting
G. Reduction of chain length
H. All of these
I. None of these
Q528. JPEG stands for:
A. Joint photographic experts group
Q529. MPEG stands for:
A. Moving pictures experts group
Q530 . DVI stands for:
A. Digital video interactive
Q531. Which refers to the process of installing
programs/software in a system of information system:
A. Requires interaction
B. Analysis of starting
C. Implementation
D. Testing
Q532. Which refers to the process of executing new and
revised programs to check whether the process and running
properly:
A. Maintenance
B. Analysis of starting
C. Implementation
D. Testing
Q533. Which refers to the proper upkeep of data, hardware,
software and in general of the entire system:
A. Tuning
B. Analysis of starting
C. Implementation
D. Maintenance
Q534. Which refers to the use of various techniques for the
adjustments and change made to help the system work
efficiently:
A. Tuning
B. Analysis of starting
C. Implementation
D. All of these
Q535. Files that require immediate access, must be stored on
: A. Slow devices
B. Faster devices
C. Medium devices
D. All of these
Q536. The batch accesses may be stored on slow devices such
as : A. Optical disk
B. Tape
C. Both
D. None
Q537. How many types of changeover methods:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q538 .Which the types of changeover methods: A. Direct
B. Parallel
C. Pilot
D. Staged or phased
E. All of these
Q539. How many types of maintenance: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q540. Which are the not a type of maintenance:
A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective
D. None of these
Q541. Which is conducted for assessing the quality of the
system produced by developer for customer:
A. Maintenance
B. Analysis of starting
C. Implementation
D. Testing
Q542. Which is basically an RDBMS in which object oriented
features are implemented: A. Java
B. C++
C. Oracle
D. DBMS
Q543. Which was the first commercial RDBMS:
A. MS SQL B. DB2
C. MY SQL
D. ORACLE
Q544. In which year RSI introduced oracle V2:
 A. 1978
B. 1979
C. 1980
D. 1981
Q545. Which version of oracle, released in 1983: A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. V4
Q546. Which version of oracle supported multi-version read
consistency: A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. V4
Q547. In which year oracle v5 was released: A. 1977
B. 1979
C. 1983
D. 1985
Q548. Which version of oracle entered the market with more
features: A. V2
B. V3
C. V5
D. V6
Q549. Which has enhancements in the input/output operation
of disk, scalability, locking of
row, backup and recovery: A. Oracle V6
B. Oracle V5
C. Oracle V3
D. Oracle V4
Q550. Oracle 8 is an object relational database that was
released in:
A. 1977
B. 1979
C. 1983
D. 1985
Q551. V6 of oracle also included the first version for : A.
PL
B. SQL
C. Both
D. None
Q552. Which was introduced stored procedures and triggers
in PL/SQL:
A. Oracle V6
B. Oracle V5
C. Oracle V3
D. Oracle V7
Q553. Version 8i entered the market in :
 A. 1979
B. 1989
C. 1999
D. None of these
Q554. RAC stands for:
A. Real application cluster
Q555. Which version included RAC that enable multiple
instances for accessing a database simultaneously:
A. V2i
B. V4i C. V6i D. V9i
Q556. Oracle 9i was introduced in:
A. 1999
B. 2000
C. 2001
D. 2002
Q557. ASM stands for:
A. Automatic storage management
Q558. Oracle database 11g was released in : A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2006
D. 2007
Q559. The server process contains memory for a private
session which is its own and is
called : A. SGA
B. PGA
C. Both
D. None
Q560. Tables and indexes that are data of logical database
structure that are stored
physically in the form of : A. Data files
B. Control files
C. Online redo log files
D. All of these
Q561. Which files has metadata that specifies database
structure that includes database name along with database files
names and locations:
A. Data files
B. Control files
C. Online redo log files
D. All of these
Q562. Which is also known as redo records, recording
whatever changes are made to data: A. Data files
B. Control files
C. Online redo log files
D. All of these
Q563. The data in oracle database is stored in blocks known as
: A. Data blocks
B. Extents
C. Segments
D. Tablespaces
Q564. Which contains many extents: A. Data blocks
B. Extents
C. Segments
D. Tablespaces
Q565. _ shows a specified number of data blocks that are
logically contiguous and keeps a particular type of information
in its storage:
A. Data blocks
B. Extents
C. Segments
D. Tablespaces
Q566. Which are logical storage units contained in a database
and a logical container for some segment:
A. Data blocks
B. Extents
C. Segments
D. Tablespaces
Q567. SOA stands for:
A. Service- oriented architecture
Q568. SOAP stands for:
A. Simple object access protocol
Q569. WSDL stands for:
A. Web services description language
Q570. ONS stands for: A. Oracle net services Q571. OLTP
stands for:
A. Online transaction processing
Q572. OLAP stands for:
A. Online analytical processing
Q573. Which refers to a software that can be executed on two
or more kinds of computer containing two or more kinds of
operating system:
A. Data blocks
B. Extents
C. Segments
D. Portable
Q574. Which refers to independent events of the main program
flow of the systems that lacks concurrency:
A. RDBMS
B. Portable
C. Asynchronously
D. None of these
Q575. Which is a method provided by an operating system,
running in a sequence of steps: A. Storage
B. Process
C. Computing
D. None of these
Q576. How many interfaces provided by oracle: A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q577. Which interface provided by oracle: A. SQL*PLUS
B. SQL*PLUS command line interface
C. SQLPlus Worksheet
D. iSQL*PLUS
E. All of these
Q578. refers to the basic facts and entities, such as
names and numbers. A. Data
B. Information
C. Input
D. Output
Q579. Information is processed from A. Output
B. Data
C. Memory
D. None of these
Q580. MIS stands for:
A. Management Information Server B. Management
Information Service C. Management Information System D.
Master Information System
Q581. Which is the false statement:
A. A database is ordered collection of data.
B. A database is systematic compilation of records in a
computer.
C. DBMS manages the database
D. Data helps in making decisions. Q582. Which is the data
model
A. Relational
B. Object-Relational
C. Network
D. All of these
Q583. Which is not the feature of database: A. Data
redundancy
B. Independence
C. Flexibility
D. Data Integrity
Q584. Which is the type of data independence: A.
Physical data independence
B. Logical data independence
C. Both
D. None of these
Q585. Which is the feature of database: A. Query
Language
B. Multi user access
C. Data Dictionary
D. All of these
Q586. Which is the advantage of database: A. Prevents
Data redundancy
B. Restricts unauthorized access
C. Persistent storage
D. Backup and recovery
E. Integrity Constraints
F. All of these
Q587. Which is the database language:
A. C
B. C++ C. SQL
D. None of these
Q588. Which person is responsible for overall activities
for database: A. Database designer
B. Database analyst
C. Database Administrator
D. Database manager
Q589. Which level of database is viewed by user: A.
Internal level
B. External Level
C. Conceptual Level
D. All of these
Q590. Internal level has:
A. Individual Users View of the database
B. Community view of the database
C. Physical Representation of the database
D. All of these
Q591. Which is the component of database management
system: A. Query Language
B. Database Manager
C. File manager
D. All of these
Q592. is the structure of the database.
A. Table
B. Relation
C. Schema
D. None of these
Q593. Schema is usually stored in .
A. Tables
B. Data Dictionary
C. Both
D. None of these
Q594. Schema is defined by: A. DML
B. DDL C. DCL D. DQL
Q595. DML language is used to:
A. Define schema
B. Define internal level
C. Access Data
D. All of these
Q596. DBMS is the bridge between operating system
and . A. User
B. Database administrator
C. Application program
D. None of these
Q597. Which is the most popular database model: A.
Network Model
B. Relational Model
C. Hierarchical Model
D. Object Oriented
Q598. Which is the schema object:
A. Database links and clusters
B. Packages and Indexes
C. Procedures and functions
D. All of these
Q599. In database records are called: A. Attributes
B. Entity
C. Tuples
D. Relations
Q600. An entity has a set of that describe
it.
A. Attributes
B. Entity
C. Tuples
D. Relations
Q601. In ER model rectangle represents: A. Attributes
B. Entity set
C. Relationships
D. None of these
Q602. Date is the type of attribute: A. Simple
B. Composite
C. Single values
D. Multi valued
Q603. is the attribute or group of attributes that
uniquely identify occurrence of each entity.
A. Foreign key
B. Super Key
C. Primary Key
D. All of these
Q604. _ is the real world object, such as a person,
place etc.
A. Attribute
B. Entity
C. Records
D. All of these
Q605. Grant and revoke is the type of command: A. DDL
B. DML C. DCL
D. DQL
Q606. A user that manages the files of application in DBMS
is called: A. Administrator
B. Database analyst
C. File Manager
D. None of these
Q607. is the information about data.
A. Data
B. Meta-Data
C. Entity
D. Relations